Q1
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 15 MR^2/32
- B. 13 MR^2/32
- C. 11 MR^2/32
- D. 9 MR^2/32
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Q2
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. μ0 2Ii/3π
- B. μ0 Ii/2π
- C. μ0 2IiL/3π
- D. μ0 IiL/2π
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Q3
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. diamagnetic material only
- B. paramagnetic material only
- C. ferromagnetic material only
- D. paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
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Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15 ms^-1. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is: (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms^-1)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 765 Hz
- B. 800 Hz
- C. 838 Hz
- D. 885 Hz
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Q5
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
A capacitor of 2μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:
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2016 (1 set)
- A. 0%
- B. 20%
- C. 75%
- D. 80%
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Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. sin^-1(1/4)
- B. sin^-1(2/3)
- C. sin^-1(1/2)
- D. sin^-1(3/4)
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Q7
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are -5.4 × 10^7 J kg^-2 and 6.0 ms^-2 respectively ? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 2600 km
- B. 1600 km
- C. 1400 km
- D. 2000 km
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Q8
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. A charge moving at constant velocity
- B. A stationary charge
- C. A chargeless particle
- D. An accelerating charge
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Q9
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. vx ∝ x^(1/2)
- B. vx ∝ x
- C. vx ∝ x^(-1/2)
- D. vx ∝ x^-1
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Q10
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. (m2/m1)^(1/2)
- B. ((m1+m2)/m2)^(1/2)
- C. (m1/m2)^(1/2)
- D. ((m1+m2)/m1)^(1/2)
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Q10
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. m1/m2
- B. (m1+m2)/m2
- C. m2/m1
- D. m1/(m1+m2)
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Q11
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is: (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 2.365 W
- B. 23.65 W
- C. 236.5 W
- D. 2365 W
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Q12
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 66.7 cm
- B. 100 cm
- C. 150 cm
- D. 200 cm
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Q13
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 0 A
- B. 10^-2 A
- C. 10^-1 A
- D. 10^-3 A
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Q14
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt^2, where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. a^3R / 6b
- B. a^3R / 3b
- C. a^3R / 2b
- D. a^3R / b
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Q15
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 × 10^6 nmK. Which of the following is correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. U1 = 0
- B. U3 = 0
- C. U1 > U2
- D. U2 > U1
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Q16
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l1 and l2 respectively. If (l2 – l1) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. α1l2 = α2l1
- B. α1l2^2 = α2l1^2
- C. α1^2l2 = α2^2l1
- D. α1l1 = α2l2
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Q18
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
The intensity at the maximum in a Young's double slit experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10 d?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. I0
- B. I0 / 4
- C. 3I0 / 4
- D. I0 / 2
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Q19
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s^–2. Its net acceleration in ms^–2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 8.0
- B. 7.0
- C. 6.0
- D. 3.0
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Q20
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. (1/c) * sqrt(E/2m)
- B. (1/2) * sqrt(E/2m)
- C. c * sqrt(2mE)
- D. (1/c) * sqrt(2m/E)
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Q21
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. Disk
- B. Sphere
- C. Both reach at the same time
- D. Depends on their masses
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Q22
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 45°, 1/sqrt(2)
- B. 30°, sqrt(2)
- C. 45°, sqrt(2)
- D. 30°, 1/sqrt(2)
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Q23
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
When an α-particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze', its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as:
- A. 1/m
- B. 1/m
- C. 1/m^2
- D. m
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Q24
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10^–4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?
- A. 0.1 m/s^2
- B. 0.15 m/s^2
- C. 0.18 m/s^2
- D. 0.2 m/s^2
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Q25
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms^–1 at 27°C and 1.0 × 10^5 Nm^–2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and 0.05 × 10^5 Nm^–2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms^–1 is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. 100 * sqrt(2)
- B. 400/3
- C. 100*sqrt(2)/3
- D. 100/3
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Q26
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B', at radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. 1/4
- B. 1/2
- C. 1
- D. 4
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Q27
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r = cos(ωt) î + sin(ωt) ĵ. Where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r.
- B. Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r.
- C. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
- D. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
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Q28
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
- A. √gR
- B. √2gR
- C. √3gR
- D. √5gR
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Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. 4λ
- B. 5λ
- C. 5λ/2
- D. 3λ
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Q30
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
- B. Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
- C. Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
- D. Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
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Q31
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. 5 : 1
- B. 5 : 4
- C. 3 : 4
- D. 3 : 2
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Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
An astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. 37.3 cm
- B. 46.0 cm
- C. 50.0 cm
- D. 54.0 cm
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Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (3 sets)
- A. {1 + (n + 1)p}ρ
- B. {2 + (n + 1)p}ρ
- C. {2 + (n - 1)p}ρ
- D. {1 + (n - 1)p}ρ
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Q34
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
- B. A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
- C. A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
- D. A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
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Q35
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10⁵ J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (3 sets)
- A. 34 km
- B. 544 km
- C. 136 km
- D. 68 km
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Q36
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. 1 : 2
- B. 1 : 2√2
- C. 1 : 4
- D. 1 : 2
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Q37
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. 0°
- B. 90°
- C. 45°
- D. 180°
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Q38
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10^7 m^–1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. 0.025 × 10^4 m^–1
- B. 0.5 × 10^7 m^–1
- C. 0.25 × 10^7 m^–1
- D. 2.5 × 10^7 m^–1
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Q39
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F = (2ti + 3t^2j)N, where i and j are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. (2t^2 + 3t^3)W
- B. (2t^2 + 4t^4)W
- C. (2t^3 + 3t^4)W
- D. (2t^3 + 3t^5)W
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Q40
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 µF and a resistor 40Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340 t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. 0.51 W
- B. 0.67 W
- C. 0.76 W
- D. 0.89 W
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Q41
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt^2, where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. (3A + 4B)/2
- B. 3A + 7B
- C. (3A + 7B)/6
- D. (A + B)/23
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Q42
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10^–3 Wb. The self inductance of the solenoid is:
- A. 4H
- B. 3H
- C. 2H
- D. 1H
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Q43
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. Current I(t) lags voltage V(t) by 90°.
- B. Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.
- C. Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
- D. Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.
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Q44
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
Match the corresponding entries of column-1 with column-2 (Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror):
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2016 (1 set)
- A. A → b and c, B → b and c, C → b and d, D → a and d
- B. A → a and c, B → a and d, C → a and b, D → c and d
- C. A → a and d, B → b and c, C → b and d, D → b and c
- D. A → c and d, B → b and d, C → b and c, D → a and d
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Q44
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
Match the corresponding entries of column-1 with column-2 (Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror):-
Column-1 | Column-2
(A) m = –2 | (a) Convex mirror
(B) m = –1/2 | (b) Concave mirror
(C) m = +2 | (c) Real image
(D) m = +1/2 | (d) Virtual image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. (1) A -> b and c, B -> b and c, C -> b and d, D -> a and d.
- B. (2) A -> a and c, B -> a and d, C -> a and b, D -> c and d
- C. (3) A -> a and d, B -> b and c, C -> b and d, D -> b and c
- D. (4) A -> c and d, B -> b and d, C -> b and c, D -> a and d
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Q45
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μs. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. (1) sqrt(gR * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
- B. (2) sqrt(gR * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
- C. (3) μs * tan θ * sqrt(gR * (1 + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
- D. (4) μs * tan^2 θ * sqrt(gR * (1 + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
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Q46
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
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- A. (1) The H–C–H bond angle in CH4, the H–N–H bond angle in NH3, and the H–O–H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90°
- B. (2) The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H–C–H bond angle in CH4.
- C. (3) The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H–N–H bond angle in NH3.
- D. (4) The H–C–H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H–N–H bond angle in NH3.
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Q47
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
In the reaction: H–C≡CH --(1. NaNH2/liq.NH3, 2. CH3CH2Br)--> X --(1. NaNH2/liq.NH3, 2. CH3CH2Br)--> Y. X and Y are:
- A. (1) X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
- B. (2) X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
- C. (3) X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
- D. (4) X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
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Q48
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Among the following, the correct order of acidity is
- A. (1) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
- B. (2) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
- C. (3) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
- D. (4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
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Q49
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. (1) 24.1 s
- B. (2) 34.1 s
- C. (3) 44.1 s
- D. (4) 54.1 s
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Q50
CHEMISTRY
Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?
- A. (1) ΔG is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive
- B. (2) ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative
- C. (3) ΔG and ΔH are negative but ΔS is positive
- D. (4) ΔG and ΔS are negative but ΔH is positive
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Q52
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Which of the following statements is false?
- A. Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP
- B. Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
- C. Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart.
- D. Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants.
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Q53
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?
- A. hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common.
- B. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
- C. Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution
- D. Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent
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Q54
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is :-
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- A. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.
- B. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
- C. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.
- D. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism.
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Q55
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 × 10^-13 at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical.
- B. The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
- C. The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water.
- D. The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities.
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Q56
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:
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- A. α-glycosidic bond
- B. β-glycosidic bond
- C. peptide bond
- D. dative bond
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Q57
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Natural rubber has
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. All cis-configuration
- B. All trans-configuration
- C. Alternate cis-and trans-configuration
- D. Random cis-and trans-configuration
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Q58
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code:
- A. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
- B. (ii), (iii), (i), (v)
- C. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
- D. (iii), (iv), (v), (i)
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Q59
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
- A. The solution turns blue
- B. The solution is decolourized
- C. SO2 is reduced
- D. Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
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Q61
CHEMISTRY
Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Principal quantum number
- B. Magnetic quantum number
- C. Azimuthal quantum number
- D. Spin quantum number
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Q62
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces
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- A. Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
- B. Cu(NO3)2 and NO
- C. Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2
- D. Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
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Q64
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0
- B. ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
- C. ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
- D. ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
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Q65
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m^-3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol^-1. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)
- A. 154 pm
- B. 352 pm
- C. 527 pm
- D. 264 pm
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Q66
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
- A. I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
- B. Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
- C. Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
- D. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
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Q67
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following is an analgesic?
- A. Novalgin
- B. Penicillin
- C. Streptomycin
- D. Chloromycetin
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Q68
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?
- A. 1/8
- B. 1/4
- C. 3/8
- D. 1/2
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Q69
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. faster
- B. slower
- C. unchanged
- D. doubled
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Q70
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Predict the correct order among the following VSEPR repulsion strengths:
- A. lone pair- lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
- B. lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
- C. bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
- D. lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
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Q72
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium: Liquid ⇌ Vapour. Which of the following relations is correct?
- A. (d ln P) / dT = ΔH / RT
- B. (d ln P) / dT = -ΔH / RT
- C. (d ln P) / dT = -ΔH / T
- D. (d ln P) / dT = ΔH / RT^2
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Q73
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. Column I: (a) XeF6, (b) XeO3, (c) XeOF4, (d) XeF4. Column II: (i) Distorted octahedral, (ii) Square planar, (iii) Pyramidal, (iv) Square pyramidal.
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- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
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Q74
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Which of the following has the longest C–O bond length? (Free C–O bond length in CO is 1.128Å).
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- A. Ni(CO)4
- B. [Co(CO)4]-
- C. [Fe(CO)4]2-
- D. [Mn(CO)6]+
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Q75
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:
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- A. 10^-14 atm
- B. 10^-12 atm
- C. 10^-10 atm
- D. 10^-4 atm
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Q76
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?
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- A. Entropy
- B. Internal energy
- C. Enthalpy
- D. Activation energy
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Q77
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The ionic radii of A+ and B- ions are 0.98 × 10–10 m and 1.81 × 10–10 m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is :-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. 6
- B. 4
- C. 8
- D. 2
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Q78
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
- A. Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid
- B. Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
- C. Both are triprotic acids
- D. Both are diprotic acids
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Q79
CHEMISTRY
Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
Fog is colloidal solution of :-
- A. Liquid in gas
- B. Gas in liquid
- C. Solid in gas
- D. Gas in gas
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Q80
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Which of the following statement about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given: Vapour Pressure Data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, Toluene = 3.85 kPa)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene
- B. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
- C. The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene
- D. Not enough information is given to make a prediction
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Q81
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformation of ethane, is :-
- A. The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain
- B. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
- C. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even through the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain
- D. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
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Q82
CHEMISTRY
Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
The reaction R-ONa + Me-I -> R-O-Me + NaI can be classified as :-
- A. Williamson ether synthesis reaction
- B. Alcohol formation reaction
- C. Dehydration reaction
- D. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
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Q82
CHEMISTRY
Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
The reaction of sodium alkoxide with an alkyl halide (Me-I) to form an ether is classified as:
- A. Williamson ether synthesis reaction
- B. Alcohol formation reaction
- C. Dehydration reaction
- D. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
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Q83
CHEMISTRY
Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is :-
- A. Schiff base
- B. Ketone
- C. Carboxylic acid
- D. Aromatic acid
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Q83
CHEMISTRY
Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Schiff base
- B. Ketone
- C. Carboxylic acid
- D. Aromatic acid
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Q85
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
For the following reactions: (a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH -> CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O, (b) 2-bromo-2-methylpropane + KOH -> 2-methylpropan-2-ol + KBr, (c) Alkene + Br2 -> vicinal dibromide. Which statement is correct?
- A. (a) and (b) are elimination reaction and (c) is addition reaction
- B. (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction
- C. (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions
- D. (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reaction
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Q86
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. 101°C
- B. 100°C
- C. 102°C
- D. 103°C
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Q87
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is:
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- A. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
- B. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
- C. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose
- D. The sugar component in RNA is 2'-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.
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Q88
CHEMISTRY
Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
- B. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
- C. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group.
- D. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized.
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Q89
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
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- A. Maltose
- B. Lactose
- C. Glucose
- D. Sucrose
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Q90
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The pair of electrons in the given carbanion, CH3-C≡C(-), is present in which of the following orbitals?
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- A. 2p
- B. sp3
- C. sp2
- D. sp
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Q91
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:
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- A. More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
- B. Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.
- C. No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
- D. Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
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Q92
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:
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- A. Hydrogen bonds
- B. Phosphodiester bond
- C. Covalent bond
- D. Disulphide bridges
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Q92
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by :-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (1 set)
- A. Hydrogen bonds
- B. Phosphodiester bond
- C. Covalent bond
- D. Disulphide bridges
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Q93
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
The coconut water from tender coconut represents:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Endocarp
- B. Fleshy mesocarp
- C. Free nuclear proembryo
- D. Free nuclear endosperm
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Q94
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. They lack a protein coat
- B. They are smaller than viruses
- C. They cause infections
- D. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
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Q95
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum Arthropoda?
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- A. Chitinous exoskeleton
- B. Metameric segmentation
- C. Parapodia
- D. Jointed appendages
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Q96
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ?
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- A. Recessive gene disorder
- B. X - linked recessive gene disorder
- C. Chromosomal disorder
- D. Dominant gene disorder
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Q97
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of :-
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- A. Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
- B. Two photosystems operating simultaneously
- C. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
- D. Oxidative phosphorylation
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Q99
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking :-
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- A. Emphysema
- B. Asthma
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
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Q100
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Ley farming
- B. Contour farming
- C. Strip farming
- D. Shifting agriculture
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Q101
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Mitochondria and chloroplast are :- (a) semi-autonomous organelles (b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery. Which one of the following options is correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. Both (a) and (b) are correct
- B. (b) is true but (a) is false
- C. (a) is true but (b) is false
- D. Both (a) and (b) are false
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Q102
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
- B. It is used for prenatal sex determination
- C. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
- D. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
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Q103
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in :-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Stroma
- B. Lumen of thylakoids
- C. Inter membrane space
- D. Antennae complex
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Q104
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of :-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Guanosine and Retinol
- B. Opsin and Retinal
- C. Opsin and Retinol
- D. Transducin and Retinene
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Q105
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Spindle fibres attach on to :-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Telomere of the chromosome
- B. Kinetochore of the chromosome
- C. Centromere of the chromosome
- D. Kinetosome of the chromosome
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Q106
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ?
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- A. Gangetic shark
- B. River dolphin
- C. Blue whale
- D. Sea-horse
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Q107
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon ?
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- A. Glucose
- B. Galactose
- C. Lactose
- D. Lactose and galactose
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Q108
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
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- A. Parathormone – Calcitonin
- B. Insulin – Glucagon
- C. Aldosterone – Atrial Natriuretic Factor
- D. Relaxin – Inhibin
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Q109
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Microtubules are the constituents of :-
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- A. Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
- B. Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
- C. Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
- D. Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
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Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :-
- A. Polysome
- B. Polymer
- C. Polypeptide
- D. Okazaki fragment
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Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2016 (2 sets)
- A. Polysome
- B. Polymer
- C. Polypeptide
- D. Okazaki fragment
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Q111
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:-
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- A. the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
- B. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
- C. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the cervix
- D. the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
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Q112
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Asthma may be attributed to :
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- A. bacterial infection of the lungs
- B. allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
- C. inflammation of the trachea
- D. accumulation of fluid in the lungs
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Q113
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. ABA
- B. GA3
- C. IAA
- D. Ethylene
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Q114
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called :
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- A. Carina
- B. Pappus
- C. Vexillum
- D. Corona
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Q115
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Liliaceae
- B. Solanaceae
- C. Fabaceae
- D. Poaceae
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Q116
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :
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- A. Chitin
- B. Peptidoglycan
- C. Cellulose
- D. Hemicellulose
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Q117
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Select the incorrect statement :
- A. FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
- B. LH triggers ovulation in ovary
- C. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
- D. LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
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Q118
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at :
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- A. Pachytene
- B. Leptotene
- C. Zygotene
- D. Diplotene
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Q119
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of :
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- A. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
- B. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
- C. 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf
- D. 3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall
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Q120
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction ?
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- A. Over - exploitation
- B. Alien species invasion
- C. Habitat loss and fragmentation
- D. Co-extinctions
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Q121
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ?
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- A. Absence of soil organisms
- B. Least genetic diversity
- C. Absence of weeds
- D. Ecological succession
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Q122
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of :
- A. estrogen and progesterone
- B. estrogen and inhibin
- C. progesterone only
- D. progesterone and inhibin
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Q123
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
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- A. Independent replication
- B. Circular structure
- C. Transferable
- D. Single - stranded
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Q124
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana ?
- A. Schizocoelom as body cavity
- B. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
- C. Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
- D. Metamerically segmented body
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Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to :
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Allergic response
- B. Graft rejection
- C. Auto-immune disease
- D. Active immunity
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Q126
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option : Column-I (a) Dominance (b) Codominance (c) Pleiotropy (d) Polygenic inheritance Column-II (i) Many genes govern a single character (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully (iv) A single gene influences many characters
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- A. (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
- B. (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
- C. (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
- D. (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
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Q127
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during :
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2016 (3 sets)
- A. 1960 s
- B. 1970 s
- C. 1980 s
- D. 1990 s
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Q128
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Pick out the correct statements : (a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease (b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy (c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder. (d) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder
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2016 (3 sets)
- A. (a) and (d) are correct
- B. (b) and (d) are correct
- C. (a), (c) and (d) are correct
- D. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
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Q130
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the
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2016 (1 set)
- A. Anther
- B. Connective
- C. Placenta
- D. Thalamus or petal
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Q131
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Barrier methods prevent fertilization
- B. Intra uterine devices Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
- C. Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
- D. Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis
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Q132
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
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- A. Thermus aquaticus
- B. Thiobacillus ferroxidans
- C. Bacillus subtilis
- D. Pseudomonas putida
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Q133
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin':-
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.
- B. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
- C. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.
- D. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.
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Q134
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
- A. Flower
- B. Leaf
- C. Stem
- D. Root
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Q135
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:-
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- A. Activated pathogens
- B. Harvested antibodies
- C. Gamma globulin
- D. Attenuated pathogens
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Q136
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Mitochondria
- B. Chloroplasts
- C. Lysosomes
- D. Nuclei
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Q137
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:-
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- A. Spasm
- B. Fatigue
- C. Tetanus
- D. Tonus
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Q138
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following is not a stem modification?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Pitcher of Nepenthes
- B. Thorns of citrus
- C. Tendrils of cucumber
- D. Flattened structures of Opuntia
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Q139
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:-
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- A. Xanthophylls
- B. Chlorophylls
- C. Carotenoids
- D. Anthocyanins
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Q140
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Select the correct statement:-
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- A. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
- B. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
- C. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
- D. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
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Q141
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
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2016 (1 set)
- A. Polymerase chain reaction
- B. Zinc finger analysis
- C. Restriction enzymes
- D. DNA–DNA hybridization
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Q142
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
- B. Areolar tissue Tendons
- C. Transitional epithelium Tip nose
- D. Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
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Q143
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
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2016 (3 sets)
- A. C3
- B. C4
- C. CAM
- D. Nitrogen fixer
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Q144
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?
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- A. Dorsal fin of a Shark
- B. Wing of a Moth
- C. Hind limb of Rabbit
- D. Flipper of Whale
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Q145
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
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- A. Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
- B. Viviparous Mammalia
- C. Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
- D. 3 - chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
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Q146
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
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2016 (1 set)
- A. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.
- B. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
- C. Mutations inactive the cell control.
- D. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
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Q147
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Melatonin and Serotonin
- B. Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
- C. Estrogen and Progesterone
- D. Cortisol and Cortisone
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Q148
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life: (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. (a) is correct but (b) is false.
- B. (b) is correct but (a) is false.
- C. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
- D. Both (a) and (b) are false.
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Q149
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Reduction in pH of blood will:
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- A. reduce the rate of heart beat.
- B. reduce the blood supply to the brain.
- C. decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.
- D. release bicarbonate ions by the liver.
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Q150
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Analogous structures are a result of:
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- A. Divergent evolution
- B. Convergent evolution
- C. Shared ancestry
- D. Stabilizing selection
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Q151
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Hind II
- B. Protease
- C. DNase I
- D. RNase
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Q152
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The term ecosystem was coined by:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. E.P. Odum
- B. A.G. Tansley
- C. E. Haeckel
- D. E. Warming
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Q153
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Sucrose is a disaccharide.
- B. Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
- C. Uracil is a pyrimidine.
- D. Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
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Q154
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Wind
- B. Insects
- C. Birds
- D. Water
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Q155
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K):
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. when N/K is exactly one.
- B. when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
- C. when N/K equals zero.
- D. when death rate is greater than birth rate.
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Q156
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which one of the following statements is not true?
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- A. Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
- B. Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
- C. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
- D. Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
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Q157
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Lichens
- B. Liverworts
- C. Mosses
- D. Green algae
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Q158
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
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- A. AUG
- B. UGA
- C. UAA
- D. UAG
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Q159
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Ossified endoskeleton
- B. Breathing using lungs
- C. Viviparity
- D. Warm blooded nature
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Q160
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
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2016 (3 sets)
- A. Biological names can be written in any language
- B. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
- C. The names are written in Latin and are italicised
- D. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
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Q161
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:
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- A. same as that in the aorta.
- B. more than that in the carotid.
- C. more than that in the pulmonary vein.
- D. less than that in the venae cavae.
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Q162
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
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- A. plumule
- B. coleorhiza
- C. coleoptile
- D. scutellum
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Q163
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
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- A. gastrin secreting cells
- B. parietal cells
- C. peptic cells
- D. acidic cells
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Q164
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:
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- A. Nitrous oxide
- B. Ozone
- C. Ammonia
- D. Methane
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Q165
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:
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2016 (3 sets)
- A. Monera
- B. Protista
- C. Fungi
- D. Animalia
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Q166
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options :-
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.
- B. Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different.
- C. The above processes happen only during night time.
- D. One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.
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Q167
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea ?
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- A. Renal Vein
- B. Dorsal Aorta
- C. Hepatic Vein
- D. Hepatic Portal Vein
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Q168
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of :-
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- A. Sporulation
- B. Budding
- C. Somatic hybridization
- D. Apomixis
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Q169
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
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- A. Trichoderma polysporum : Cyclosporin A : immunosuppressive drug
- B. Monascus purpureus : Statins : lowering of blood cholesterol
- C. Streptococcus : Streptokinase : removal of clot from blood vessel
- D. Clostridium butylicum : Lipase : removal of oil stains
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Q170
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates :-
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.
- B. Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.
- C. The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
- D. Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
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Q171
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because :-
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- A. It is easier to carry a small body weight.
- B. Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
- C. Small animals have a lower O2 requirement.
- D. The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
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Q172
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells ?
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- A. Spindle fibres
- B. Disappearance of nucleolus
- C. Chromosome movement
- D. Synapsis
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Q174
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called :-
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- A. Complementary cells
- B. Subsidiary cells
- C. Bulliform cells
- D. Lenticels
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Q175
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum ?
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2016 (3 sets)
- A. Semilunar valve
- B. Ileocaecal valve
- C. Pyloric sphincter
- D. Sphincter of Oddi
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Q176
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as :-
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- A. Cladodes
- B. Phyllodes
- C. Phylloclades
- D. Scales
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Q177
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the :-
- A. Halophiles
- B. Thermoacidiophiles
- C. Methanogens
- D. Eubacteria
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Q177
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the :-
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2016 (2 sets)
- A. Halophiles
- B. Thermoacidiophiles
- C. Methanogens
- D. Eubacteria
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Q178
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in :-
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- A. Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
- B. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
- C. An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
- D. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
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Q179
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in :-
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- A. Aneuploidy
- B. Polyploidy
- C. Somaclonal variation
- D. Polyteny
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Q180
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
A typical fat molecule is made up of :-
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- A. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
- B. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
- C. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
- D. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
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