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Comparative Exams · NEET · 2016

NEET 2016 CODE-Q

180 questions from this NEET 2016 paper. Log in to view the correct answer and explanation for each question.

Q1 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Internal energy
  • B. Enthalpy
  • C. Activation energy
  • D. Entropy

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Q2 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Predict the correct order among the following:
  • A. lone pair-lone pair > bond pair-bond pair > lone pair – bond pair
  • B. bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
  • C. lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
  • D. lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair

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Q3 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is:
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  • A. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring pi electron system.
  • B. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group.
  • C. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized
  • D. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring pi electron system.

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Q4 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces:
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  • A. Cu(NO3)2 and NO
  • B. Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2
  • C. Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
  • D. Cu(NO3)2 and NO2

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Q5 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
For the following reactions: (a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH -> CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O; (b) (CH3)2CHBr + KOH -> (CH3)2CHOH + KBr; (c) C6H6 + Br2 -> C6H6Br2. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • A. (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) addition reaction.
  • B. (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.
  • C. (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
  • D. (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.

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Q6 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
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  • A. Magnetic quantum number
  • B. Azimuthal quantum number
  • C. Spin quantum number
  • D. Principal quantum number

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Q7 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
The reaction of phenoxide ion (from phenol + NaH) with methyl iodide (Me-I) to form an ether can be classified as:
  • A. Alcohol formation reaction
  • B. Dehydration reaction
  • C. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
  • D. Williamson ether synthesis reaction

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Q7 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
The reaction of an alkoxide with an alkyl halide (R–X + R–ONa -> R–O–R + NaX) can be classified as:
  • A. Alcohol formation reaction
  • B. Dehydration reaction
  • C. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
  • D. Williamson ether synthesis reaction

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Q8 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are:
  • A. [Xe]4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f9 6s2
  • B. [Xe]4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f8 5d1 6s2
  • C. [Xe]4f7 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f9 6s2
  • D. [Xe]4f7 6s2, [Xe]4f8 6s2 and [Xe]4f8 5d1 6s2

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Q9 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
At 100ºC the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 100ºC
  • B. 102ºC
  • C. 103ºC
  • D. 101ºC

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Q10 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:
  • A. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.
  • B. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
  • C. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
  • D. The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain.

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Q11 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?
  • A. ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative
  • B. ΔG and ΔH are negative but ΔS is positive
  • C. ΔG and ΔS are negative but ΔH is positive
  • D. ΔG is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive

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Q12 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. (Column I: (a) XeF6, (b) XeO3, (c) XeOF4, (d) XeF4; Column II: (i) distorted octahedral, (ii) square planar, (iii) pyramidal, (iv) square pyramidal)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

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Q13 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
  • B. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation
  • C. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism.
  • D. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.

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Q14 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:
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  • A. β-glycosidic bond
  • B. peptide bond
  • C. dative bond
  • D. α-glycosidic bond

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Q15 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code: Column I (a) Cyanide process (b) Froth floatation process (c) Electrolytic reduction (d) Zone refining. Column II (i) Ultrapure Ge (ii) Dressing of Zns (iii) Extraction of Al (iv) Extraction of Au (v) Purification of Ni
  • A. (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
  • B. (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  • C. (3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
  • D. (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

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Q16 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Which of the following is an analgesic?
  • A. Penicillin
  • B. Streptomycin
  • C. Chloromycetin
  • D. Novalgin

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Q17 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
  • A. Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
  • B. Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid
  • C. Both are triprotic acids
  • D. Both are diprotic acids

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Q18 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C≡C⁻, is present in which of the following orbitals?
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  • A. sp3
  • B. sp2
  • C. sp
  • D. 2p

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Q19 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
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  • A. The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4
  • B. The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
  • C. The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in NH3
  • D. The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90º

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Q19 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4
  • B. The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
  • C. The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in NH3
  • D. The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90º

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Q20 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
  • A. The solution is decolourized
  • B. SO2 is reduced
  • C. Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
  • D. The solution turns blue

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Q21 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is:
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  • A. ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
  • B. ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
  • C. ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
  • D. ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0

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Q22 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Natural rubber has :
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  • A. All trans-configuration
  • B. Alternate cis- and trans-configuration
  • C. Random cis- and trans-configuration
  • D. All cis-configuration

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Q23 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?
  • A. B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
  • B. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
  • C. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
  • D. Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- (increasing ionic size)

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Q24 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?
  • A. Ozone
  • B. MnO2
  • C. Aluminium isopropoxide
  • D. Acetone

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Q25 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is
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  • A. CaCN
  • B. CaCN3
  • C. Ca2CN
  • D. Ca(CN)2

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Q26 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Fog is a colloidal solution of:
  • A. Gas in liquid
  • B. Solid in gas
  • C. Gas in gas
  • D. Liquid in gas

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Q26 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Fog is a colloidal solution of :
  • A. Gas in liquid
  • B. Solid in gas
  • C. Gas in gas
  • D. Liquid in gas

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Q27 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
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  • A. Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
  • B. Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
  • C. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
  • D. I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

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Q28 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?
  • A. 1/4
  • B. 3/8
  • C. 1/2
  • D. 1/8

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m–3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol–1. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02 × 10^23 mol–1)
  • A. 352 pm
  • B. 527 pm
  • C. 264 pm
  • D. 154 pm

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Q30 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1:1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25ºC. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25ºC, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
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  • A. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
  • B. The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene
  • C. Not enough information is given to make a prediction
  • D. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene

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Q31 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Which of the following has the longest C – O bond length? (Free C – O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å)
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  • A. [Co(CO)4]-
  • B. [Fe(CO)4]2-
  • C. [Mn(CO)6]+
  • D. Ni(CO)4

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Q32 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Among the following the correct order of acidity is :
  • A. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
  • B. HClO4 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
  • C. HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
  • D. HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO

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Q32 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Among the following the correct order of acidity is:
  • A. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
  • B. HClO4 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
  • C. HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
  • D. HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO

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Q33 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
In the following reaction sequence, X and Y are: HC≡CH --(NaNH2, CH3CH2Br)--> X --(NaNH2, CH3CH2Br)--> Y
  • A. X = 2-Butyne ; Y=3-Hexyne
  • B. X = 2-Butyne ; Y=2-Hexyne
  • C. X = 1-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
  • D. X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne

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Q33 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
In the reaction CH≡CH --(NaNH2/liq. NH3)--> X --(CH3CH2Br)--> Y --(NaNH2/liq. NH3)--> --(CH3CH2Br)--> X and Y are:
  • A. X = 2-Butyne; Y = 3-Hexyne
  • B. X = 2-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
  • C. X = 1-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
  • D. X = 1-Butyne; Y = 3-Hexyne

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Q34 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 × 10^-13 at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3?
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  • A. The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
  • B. The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water
  • C. The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities
  • D. The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical

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Q35 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:
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  • A. slower
  • B. unchanged
  • C. doubled
  • D. faster

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Q36 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
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  • A. Ketone
  • B. Carboxylic acid
  • C. Aromatic acid
  • D. Schiff base

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Q37 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:
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  • A. 10^-12 atm
  • B. 10^-10 atm
  • C. 10^-4 atm
  • D. 10^-14 atm

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Q38 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is:
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  • A. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-deoxyribose
  • B. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
  • C. The sugar component in RNA is 2'-dexyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
  • D. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose

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Q39 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
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  • A. Lactose
  • B. Glucose
  • C. Sucrose
  • D. Maltose

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Q39 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
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  • A. Lactose
  • B. Glucose
  • C. Sucrose
  • D. Maltose

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Q40 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Which of the following statement about hydrogen is incorrect?
  • A. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
  • B. Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution
  • C. Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent
  • D. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common

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Q41 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium: Liquid ⇌ Vapour. Which of the following relations is correct?
  • A. d(ln P)/dT = -ΔH_v / RT
  • B. d(ln P)/dT = -ΔH_v / T^2
  • C. d(ln P)/dT = ΔH_v / RT^2
  • D. d(ln G)/dT = ΔH_v / RT^2

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Q42 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?
  • A. 2,2'-diiodo-6,6'-dibromobiphenyl
  • B. 4,4'-diiodobiphenyl
  • C. 2,2'-dimethylbiphenyl
  • D. 2-iodo-2'-nitro-biphenyl

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Q43 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements is false?
  • A. Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
  • B. Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of heart
  • C. Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants
  • D. Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP

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Q44 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The ionic radii of A+ and B– ions are 0.98 × 10^–10 m and 1.81 × 10^–10 m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is:
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  • A. 4
  • B. 8
  • C. 2
  • D. 6

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Q45 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol l^–1 s^–1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l^–1 s^–1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
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  • A. 34.1 s
  • B. 44.1 s
  • C. 54.1 s
  • D. 24.1 s

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Q45 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol l⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
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  • A. 34.1 s
  • B. 44.1 s
  • C. 54.1 s
  • D. 24.1 s

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Q46 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by
  • A. Phosphodiester bond
  • B. Covalent bond
  • C. Disulphide bridges
  • D. Hydrogen bonds

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Q46 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by
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  • A. Phosphodiester bond
  • B. Covalent bond
  • C. Disulphide bridges
  • D. Hydrogen bonds

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Q47 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
The coconut water from tender coconut represents :
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  • A. Fleshy mesocarp
  • B. Free nuclear proembryo
  • C. Free nuclear endosperm
  • D. Endocarp

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Q48 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?
  • A. Circular structure
  • B. Transferable
  • C. Single-stranded
  • D. Independent replication

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Q49 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ?
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  • A. River dolphin
  • B. Blue whale
  • C. Sea-horse
  • D. Gangetic shark

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Q50 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of
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  • A. GA3
  • B. IAA
  • C. Ethylene
  • D. ABA

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Q51 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction ?
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  • A. Alien species invasion
  • B. Habitat loss and fragmentation
  • C. Co-extinctions
  • D. Over-exploitation

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Q52 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
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  • A. Intra uterine devices Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperm
  • B. Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/retard entry of sperm, prevent ovulation and fertilization
  • C. Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis
  • D. Barrier methods Prevent fertilization

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Q53 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates -
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  • A. Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
  • B. The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
  • C. Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene
  • D. The two genes are located on two different chromosomes

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Q54 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
A typical fat molecule is made up of -
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  • A. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
  • B. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
  • C. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
  • D. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule

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Q54 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A typical fat molecule is made up of -
  • A. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
  • B. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
  • C. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
  • D. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule

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Q55 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option: Column-I: (a) Dominance, (b) Codominance, (c) Pleiotropy, (d) Polygenic inheritance Column-II: (i) Many genes govern a single character, (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself, (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully, (iv) A single gene influences many characters
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. (1) ii iii iv i
  • B. (2) iv i ii iii
  • C. (3) iv iii i ii
  • D. (4) ii i iv iii

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Q56 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following statements is not correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen / nectar robbers.
  • B. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
  • C. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
  • D. Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.

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Q57 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
  • B. Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
  • C. Metamerically segmented body
  • D. Schizocoelom as body cavity

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Q58 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Chlorophylls
  • B. Carotenoids
  • C. Anthocyanins
  • D. Xanthophylls

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Q59 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would results in -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Polyploidy
  • B. Somaclonal variation
  • C. Polyteny
  • D. Aneuploidy

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Q60 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilization. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. C4
  • B. CAM
  • C. Nitrogen fixer
  • D. C3

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Q61 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Graft rejection
  • B. Auto-immune disease
  • C. Active immunity
  • D. Allergic response

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Q61 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Graft rejection
  • B. Auto-immune disease
  • C. Active immunity
  • D. Allergic response

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Q62 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Two photosystems operating simultaneously
  • B. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
  • C. Oxidative phosphorylation
  • D. Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

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Q62 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Two photosystems operating simultaneously
  • B. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
  • C. Oxidative phosphorylation
  • D. Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

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Q63 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Select the correct statement:
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  • A. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
  • B. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
  • C. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
  • D. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

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Q64 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
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  • A. Disappearance of nucleolus
  • B. Chromosome movement
  • C. Synapsis
  • D. Spindle fibres

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Q65 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. More than that in the carotid
  • B. More than that in the pulmonary vein
  • C. Less than that in the venae cavae
  • D. Same as that in the aorta

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Q66 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of the birds?
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  • A. Wing of a Moth
  • B. Hind limb of Rabbit
  • C. Flippers of Whale
  • D. Dorsal fin of a Shark

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Q67 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Seed formation without fertilization in following plants involves the process of:
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  • A. Budding
  • B. Somatic hybridization
  • C. Apomixis
  • D. Sporulation

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Q68 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Asthma
  • B. Respiratory acidosis
  • C. Respiratory alkalosis
  • D. Emphysema

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Q69 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Spindle fibres attach on to:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Kinetochore of the chromosomes
  • B. Centromere of the chromosomes
  • C. Kinetosome of the chromosomes
  • D. Telomere of the chromosomes

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Q70 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. It is used for prenatal sex determination
  • B. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
  • C. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
  • D. It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant

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Q71 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:
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  • A. Phyllodes
  • B. Phylloclades
  • C. Scales
  • D. Cladodes

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Q71 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Phyllodes
  • B. Phylloclades
  • C. Scales
  • D. Cladodes

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Q72 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In a chloroplast, the highest number of protons are found in
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Lumen of thylakoids
  • B. Inter membrane space
  • C. Antennae complex
  • D. Stroma

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Q73 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
  • B. The names are written in Latin and are italicised
  • C. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
  • D. Biological names can be written in any language

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Q74 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
In meiosis, crossing over is initiated at:
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  • A. Leptotene
  • B. Zygotene
  • C. Diplotene
  • D. Pachytene

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Q75 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Harvested antibodies
  • B. Gamma globulin
  • C. Attenuated pathogens
  • D. Activated pathogens

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Q76 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Thiobacillus ferroxidans
  • B. Bacillus subtilis
  • C. Pseudomonas putida
  • D. Thermus aquaticus

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Q77 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. X-linked recessive gene disorder
  • B. Chromosomal disorder
  • C. Dominant gene disorder
  • D. Recessive gene disorder

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Q78 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:
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  • A. Pappus
  • B. Vexillum
  • C. Corona
  • D. Carina

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Q79 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
  • A. Leaf
  • B. Stem
  • C. Root
  • D. Flower

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Q79 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Leaf
  • B. Stem
  • C. Root
  • D. Flower

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Q80 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. They are smaller than viruses
  • B. They cause infections
  • C. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
  • D. They lack a protein coat

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Q80 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. They are smaller than viruses
  • B. They cause infections
  • C. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
  • D. They lack a protein coat

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Q81 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
  • B. Mutations inactivate the cell control
  • C. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
  • D. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle

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Q82 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its locations?
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  • A. Areolar tissue - Tendons
  • B. Transitional epithelium - Tip of nose
  • C. Cuboidal epithelium - Lining of stomach
  • D. Smooth muscle - Wall of intestine

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Q83 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Insulin - Glucagon
  • B. Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
  • C. Relaxin - Inhibin
  • D. Parathormone - Calcitonin

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Q84 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called -
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  • A. Subsidiary cells
  • B. Bulliform cells
  • C. Lenticels
  • D. Complementary cells

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Q85 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if -
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  • A. The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
  • B. The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix
  • C. The sperm are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
  • D. The sperm are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube

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Q86 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
  • A. UGA
  • B. UAA
  • C. UAG
  • D. AUG

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Q87 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in -
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  • A. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms
  • B. An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients
  • C. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen
  • D. Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom

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Q88 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life - (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. (b) is correct but (a) is false
  • B. Both (a) and (b) are correct
  • C. Both (a) and (b) are false
  • D. (a) is correct but (b) is false

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Q88 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life: (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. (1) (b) is correct but (a) is false
  • B. (2) Both (a) and (b) are correct
  • C. (3) Both (a) and (b) are false
  • D. (4) (a) is correct but (b) is false

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Q89 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called -
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  • A. Contour farming
  • B. Strip farming
  • C. Shifting agriculture
  • D. Ley farming

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Q89 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. (1) Contour farming
  • B. (2) Strip farming
  • C. (3) Shifting agriculture
  • D. (4) Ley farming

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Q90 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. (1) Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
  • B. (2) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources
  • C. (3) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition
  • D. (4) More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition

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Q91 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
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  • A. (1) Viviparous Mammalia
  • B. (2) Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
  • C. (3) 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
  • D. (4) Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes

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Q92 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Change in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of -
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  • A. (1) estrogen and inhibin
  • B. (2) progesterone only
  • C. (3) progesterone and inhibin
  • D. (4) estrogen and progesterone

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Q93 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Microtubules are the constituents of -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. (1) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
  • B. (2) Centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
  • C. (3) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
  • D. (4) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes

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Q94 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Mitochondria and chloroplast are- (a) semi-autonomous organelles (b) formed by division of pre existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery Which one of the following options is correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. (1) (b) is true but (a) is false
  • B. (2) (a) is true but (b) is false
  • C. (3) Both (a) and (b) are false
  • D. (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct

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Q95 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of -
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  • A. (1) Opsin and Retinal
  • B. (2) Opsin and Retinol
  • C. (3) Transducin and Retinene
  • D. (4) Guanosine and Retinol

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Q95 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Opsin and Retinal
  • B. Opsin and Retinol
  • C. Transducin and Retinene
  • D. Guanosine and Retinol

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Q96 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. (1) Protista
  • B. (2) Fungi
  • C. (3) Animalia
  • D. (4) Monera

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Q96 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Protista
  • B. Fungi
  • C. Animalia
  • D. Monera

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Q97 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals include the -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. (1) Thermoacidophiles
  • B. (2) Methanogens
  • C. (3) Eubacteria
  • D. (4) Halophiles

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Q97 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals include the -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Thermoacidophiles
  • B. Methanogens
  • C. Eubacteria
  • D. Halophiles

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Q98 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin' -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
  • B. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH
  • C. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH
  • D. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin

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Q99 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
It is much easier for a small animals to run uphill than for a large animal, because -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate
  • B. Small animals have a lower O2 requirement
  • C. The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals
  • D. It is easier to carry a small body weight

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Q100 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
  • B. 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf
  • C. 3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall
  • D. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Ozone
  • B. Ammonia
  • C. Methane
  • D. Nitrous oxide

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ?
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  • A. Least genetic diversity
  • B. Absence of weeds
  • C. Ecological succession
  • D. Absence of soil organisms

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of -
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  • A. Solanaceae
  • B. Fabaceae
  • C. Poaceae
  • D. Liliaceae

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Reduction in pH of blood will-
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  • A. reduce the blood supply to the brain
  • B. decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
  • C. release bicarbonate ions by the liver
  • D. reduce the rate of heart beat

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Reduction in pH of blood will-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. reduce the blood supply to the brain
  • B. decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
  • C. release bicarbonate ions by the liver
  • D. reduce the rate of heart beat

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as -
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  • A. Fatigue
  • B. Tetanus
  • C. Tonus
  • D. Spasm

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Golden algae are also called desmids
  • B. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
  • C. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
  • D. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
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  • A. Protease
  • B. DNase I
  • C. RNase I
  • D. Hind II

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
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  • A. Liverworts
  • B. Mosses
  • C. Green algae
  • D. Lichens

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Q124 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
  • B. Uracil is a pyrimidine.
  • C. Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
  • D. Sucrose is a disaccharide.

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Q124 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
  • B. Uracil is a pyrimidine.
  • C. Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
  • D. Sucrose is a disaccharide.

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Q136 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is :
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  • A. 20 %
  • B. 75 %
  • C. 80 %
  • D. 0 %

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Q138 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 5 : 4
  • B. 3 : 4
  • C. 3 : 2
  • D. 5 : 1

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Q139 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 5 λ
  • B. 2.5 λ
  • C. 3 λ
  • D. 4 λ

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Q140 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. {2 + (n + 1) p} ρ
  • B. {2 + (n - 1) p} ρ
  • C. {1 + (n - 1) p} ρ
  • D. {1 + (n + 1) p} ρ

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Q140 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. {2 + (n + 1) p} ρ
  • B. {2 + (n – 1) p} ρ
  • C. {1 + (n – 1) p} ρ
  • D. {1 + (n + 1) p} ρ

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Q141 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. A stationary charge
  • B. A chargeless particle
  • C. An accelerating charges
  • D. A charge moving at constant velocity

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Q142 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt², where a and b are positive constants, The total heat produced in R is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. b³ / (Ra³)
  • B. b² / (Ra³)
  • C. b / (Ra³)
  • D. Ra³ / 6b

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Q143 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are – 5.4 × 10⁷ J kg⁻² and 6.0 ms⁻² respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 1600 km
  • B. 1400 km
  • C. 2000 km
  • D. 2600 km

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Q144 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l1 and l2 respectively. If (l2 – l1) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. l1α1² = l2α2²
  • B. l1²α1 = l2²α2
  • C. l1α1 = l2α2
  • D. l1α2 = l2α1

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Q145 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10 d?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. I0 / 4
  • B. 3I0 / 4
  • C. I0 / 2
  • D. I0

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Q146 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10⁷ m⁻¹, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. 0.5 × 10⁷ m⁻¹
  • B. 0.25 × 10⁷ m⁻¹
  • C. 2.5 × 10⁷ m⁻¹
  • D. 0.025 × 10⁴ m⁻¹

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Q146 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10^7 m^-1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. 0.5 × 10^7 m^-1
  • B. 0.25 × 10^7 m^-1
  • C. 2.5 × 10^7 m^-1
  • D. 0.025 × 10^4 m^-1

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Q147 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 1 : 2√2
  • B. 1 : 4
  • C. 1 : 2
  • D. 1 : √2

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Q148 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10^-3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 3 H
  • B. 2 H
  • C. 1 H
  • D. 4 H

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Q149 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μs. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. sqrt(gR * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
  • B. sqrt(R/g * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
  • C. sqrt(R^2/g * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
  • D. sqrt(gR^2 * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))

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Q150 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. paramagnetic material only
  • B. ferromagnetic material only
  • C. paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
  • D. diamagnetic material only

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Q151 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15ms^-1. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is: (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms^-1)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 800 Hz
  • B. 838 Hz
  • C. 885 Hz
  • D. 765 Hz

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Q152 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F = (2ti + 3t^2j)N, where i and j are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. (2t^2 + 4t^4) W
  • B. (2t^3 + 3t^4) W
  • C. (2t^3 + 3t^5) W
  • D. (2t^2 + 3t^3) W

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Q152 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F = (t^2 i^ + 3t j^) N, where i^ and j^ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (3 sets)
  • A. (2t^2 + 4t^4)W
  • B. (2t^3 + 3t^4)W
  • C. (2t^3 + 3t^5)W
  • D. (2t^2 + 3t^3)W

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Q153 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 13 MR^2 / 32
  • B. 11 MR^2 / 32
  • C. 9 MR^2 / 32
  • D. 15 MR^2 / 32

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Q154 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle 30º when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. sin^-1(2/3)
  • B. sin^-1(1/2)
  • C. sin^-1(3/4)
  • D. sin^-1(1/4)

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Q155 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A square loop ABCD carrying a current i is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. (μ0 I i) / 2π
  • B. (2 μ0 I i L) / 3π
  • C. (μ0 I i L) / 2π
  • D. (2 μ0 I i) / 3π

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Q156 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 × 10^6 nmK. Which of the following is correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. U3 = 0
  • B. U1 > U2
  • C. U2 > U1
  • D. U1 = 0

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Q157 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 100 cm
  • B. 150 cm
  • C. 200 cm
  • D. 66.7 cm

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Q157 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 100 cm
  • B. 150 cm
  • C. 200 cm
  • D. 66.7 cm

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Q158 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s velocity of 200 ms^-1 at 27ºC and 1.0 × 10^5 Nm^-2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127ºC and 0.05 × 10^5 Nm^-2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms^-1 is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 400/sqrt(3)
  • B. 2100/sqrt(3)
  • C. 100/sqrt(3)
  • D. 2100

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Q158 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s velocity of 200 ms^-1 at 27ºC and 1.0 × 10^5 Nm^-2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127ºC and 0.05 × 10^5 Nm^-2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms^-1 is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 400/sqrt(3)
  • B. 2100/sqrt(3)
  • C. 100/sqrt(3)
  • D. 2100

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Q159 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 10^-2 A
  • B. 10^-1 A
  • C. 10^-3 A
  • D. 0 A

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Q160 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 90º
  • B. 45º
  • C. 180º
  • D.

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Q161 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
An astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 46.0 cm
  • B. 50.0 cm
  • C. 54.0 cm
  • D. 37.3 cm

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Q162 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
A npn transistor is connected to common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be:
  • A. 3.69, 3.84
  • B. 4, 4
  • C. 4, 3.69
  • D. 4, 3.84

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Q163 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
  • B. Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
  • C. Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
  • D. Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.

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Q164 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A long straight wire of radius 'a' carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B' at radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 1/2
  • B. 1
  • C. 4
  • D. 1/4

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Q165 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]: Column 1 | Column 2 (A) m = -2 | (a) Convex mirror (B) m = -1/2 | (b) Concave mirror (C) m = +2 | (c) Real image (D) m = +1/2 | (d) Virtual image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. A -> a and c; B -> a and d; C -> a and b; D -> c and d
  • B. A -> a and d; B -> b and c; C -> b and d; D -> b and c
  • C. A -> c and d; B -> b and d; C -> b and c; D -> a and d
  • D. A -> b and c; B -> b and c; C -> b and d; D -> a and d

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Q166 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt^2, where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 3A + 7B
  • B. 3/2A + 7/3B
  • C. 2/A + 3/B
  • D. 3/2A + 4B

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Q167 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Sphere
  • B. Both reach at the same time
  • C. Depends on their masses
  • D. Disk

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Q168 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of length l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. v proportional to x
  • B. v proportional to x^-1/2
  • C. v proportional to x^-1
  • D. v proportional to x^1/2

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Q169 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r = i cos(ωt) + j sin(ωt). Where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r
  • B. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin
  • C. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin
  • D. Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r

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Q170 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: (Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10^5 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 544 km
  • B. 136 km
  • C. 68 km
  • D. 34 km

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Q171 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s^-2. Its net acceleration in ms^-2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 7.0
  • B. 6.0
  • C. 3.0
  • D. 8.0

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Q172 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
  • A. sqrt(2gR)
  • B. sqrt(3gR)
  • C. sqrt(5gR)
  • D. sqrt(gR)

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Q173 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source
  • B. Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
  • C. Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180º
  • D. Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90º

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Q174 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. sqrt((m1+m2)/m2)
  • B. m2/m1
  • C. (m1+m2)/m2
  • D. m1/m2

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Q174 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. (m1+m2)/m2
  • B. m2/m1
  • C. m1/(m1+m2)
  • D. m1/m2

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Q175 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 µF and a resistor 40  are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (2 sets)
  • A. 0.67 W
  • B. 0.76 W
  • C. 0.89 W
  • D. 0.51 W

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Q176 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. (1/c) * sqrt(E/2m)
  • B. (1/c) * sqrt(2mE)
  • C. (1/c) * sqrt(E/2m)
  • D. (1/c) * sqrt(E/2m)

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Q177 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
When an α-particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze', its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as :
  • A. 1/m
  • B. 1/m^2
  • C. m
  • D. 1/m

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Q178 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A refrigerator works between 4ºC and 30ºC. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is : (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 23.65 W
  • B. 236.5 W
  • C. 2365 W
  • D. 2.365 W

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Q179 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10^-4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?
  • A. 0.15 m/s^2
  • B. 0.18 m/s^2
  • C. 0.2 m/s^2
  • D. 0.1 m/s^2

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Q180 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45º. The angle of prism is 60º. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2016 (1 set)
  • A. 30º ; 2
  • B. 45º ; 2
  • C. 30º ; 1/sqrt(2)
  • D. 45º ; 1/sqrt(2)

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