Q1
mcq
1 mark
Fredaria is country in which courts play a vital role in creating laws, especially where gaps in law exist. Identify the legal system of Fredaria.
- A. Civil law
- B. Adversarial
- C. Common law
- D. Inquisitorial
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Q2
mcq
1 mark
In the context of judicial proceedings, what does “Suo motu cognizance” mean ?
- A. A case initiated by the government.
- B. A case dismissed due to lack of evidence.
- C. A case taken up by the court in its own motion without a formal complaint.
- D. A case transferred from a lower court to a higher court.
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Q3
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : Public Interest Litigations (PILs) have strengthened the role of the judiciary as a monitor.
Reason (R) : Fear of being dragged to the court via Public Interest Litigation (PIL) has improved the quality of several social institutions in the country.
Choose the correct option :
- A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Q4
mcq
1 mark
Rohan and Sanjana are two friends who decide to go on a road trip. They verbally agree that Rohan will drive and Sanjana will pay for the fuel. However, when the trip is about to start, Sanjana refuses to pay for the fuel stating that she is struggling financially. Rohan gets angry and considers legal action. Based on the scenario, which of the following statements is correct ?
- A. Rohan can sue Sanjana for breach of contract because all agreements are contracts.
- B. Rohan cannot sue Sanjana for breach of contract because their agreement does not fulfill all the legal requirements of a contract.
- C. Rohan can sue Sanjana for breach of contract because she made a verbal promise.
- D. Rohan cannot sue Sanjana because a verbal agreement is never enforceable by law.
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Q5
mcq
1 mark
John borrows Rajat’s laptop for a week to complete a project. After the agreed time, instead of returning it, John lends the laptop to a third party without informing Rajat. When Rajat asks for his laptop back, John claims he no longer has it. Which of the following best explains why John is liable for the tort of conversion ?
- A. John damaged the laptop while it was in his possession.
- B. John had lent the laptop to a third party without Rajat’s consent, depriving the latter of his ownership rights.
- C. John kept the laptop for an extra week beyond the agreed time.
- D. John used the laptop for personal work during the time he borrowed it.
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Q6
mcq
1 mark
Raju decides to give his vacation home to Samir. He verbally informs Samir of his decision and hands over the keys to the property. However, Raju does not complete any legal formalities or transfer the title of the property. Later, Raju changes his mind and instead wants to sell the vacation home. Samir believes that the vacation home is legally his. In this context, which of the following statements is correct ?
- A. The vacation home legally belongs to Samir because a verbal promise and handing over the keys make a valid gift.
- B. The vacation home remains Raju’s property because the required legal formalities were not completed.
- C. Samir can claim the vacation home if Raju had promised it in writing, even without consideration.
- D. Raju cannot sell the vacation home because Samir has a legal claim based on the verbal promise.
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Q6
mcq
1 mark
Raju decides to give his vacation home to his friend Sameer as a gift. He verbally informs Sameer of his decision and hands over the keys of the property. However, Raju does not complete any legal formalities or transfer the property title. Later, Raju changes his mind and wants to sell the vacation home instead. Sameer believes the house legally belongs to him. Which of the following statements is correct in this context?
- A. The vacation home legally belongs to Sameer because the verbal promise and key handover constitute a valid gift.
- B. The vacation home remains Raju’s property because there was no consideration involved and legal formalities were not completed.
- C. Sameer could have claimed the vacation home if Raju had made the promise in writing, even without consideration.
- D. Raju cannot sell the vacation home because Sameer has a legal claim due to the verbal promise.
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Q7
mcq
1 mark
Priya uses a unique logo for her homemade chocolate business. She notices that another local shop in using a very similar logo and she decides to register hers as trademark. What is the primary function of the trademark?
- A. To prevent others from selling the same product.
- B. To protect the logo under copyright law.
- C. To distinguish Priya’s chocolates from others and prevent customer confusion.
- D. To automatically protect her business secrets and all designs.
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Q8
short answer
1 mark
Vikram owns a chemical factory that stores larges quantities of hazardous chemicals. One day due to an unexpected natural disaster, a tank containing these chemicals ruptures, leading to a leak that contaminates a nearby river.
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Q8
mcq
1 mark
Vikram owns a chemical factory that stores large quantities of hazardous chemicals. One day due to an unexpected natural disaster, a tank containing these chemicals ruptures, leading to a leak that contaminates a nearby river. The local community suffers significant harm from the contamination, and they decide to sue Vikram. Which of the following legal principles is most applicable in this case?
- A. Vikram can avoid liability because the disaster was unforeseeable.
- B. Vikram is not liable because the leak was caused by an external factor.
- C. Vikram is only liable if negligence can be proven.
- D. Vikram is absolutely liable as the hazardous activity led to harm, regardless of fault.
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Q9
mcq
1 mark
Rohit owns a spacious estate where he displays a collection of valuable antique statues in his garden. One afternoon, Payal, without Rohit’s permission, walks onto his property to take a closer look at the statues. She accidentally knocks over one of the statues, causing it to break. Rohit discovers the damage and decides to take legal action. Which of the following options can Rohit pursue?
- A. He can only file a claim for trespass to land because Payal entered his property without permission.
- B. He can only file a claim for trespass to chattels because Payal damaged one of his statues.
- C. He can file claims for both trespass to land and trespass to chattels because Payal damaged one of the statues.
- D. He cannot pursue either claim because Payal did not intend to cause harm.
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Q10
mcq
1 mark
Neha owns a piece of agricultural land. She enters into an agreement with Raj, allowing him to cultivate crops on the land for ten years in exchange for an annual rent. The agreement specifies that Raj must maintain the fertility of the soil and cannot make any permanent structural changes without Neha’s consent. After ten years, Raj must return the land to Neha. A few years later, Raj constructs a small warehouse on the land without Neha’s permission. When Neha objects, Raj claims that since he is paying rent and using the land for a long period, he has ownership rights over the property. Which of the following statements correctly applies to this situation?
- A. Raj has ownership rights over the land since he has been using it for several years and has built a warehouse.
- B. Raj is a tenant under a lease agreement, and constructing the warehouse without Neha’s permission is a violation of the lease terms.
- C. Since Raj is cultivating the land, the agreement is a sale of agricultural land rather than a lease.
- D. Neha cannot object to the warehouse because Raj is making productive use of the land.
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Q11
mcq
1 mark
In a trial, the judge acts as a neutral arbiter while the attorneys for both sides present their cases. The defense lawyer focuses on discrediting the prosecutions’ witnesses through cross-examination. The judge bases the final decision, primarily on the arguments and evidence presented by the attorneys. Which legal scenario does this describe?
- A. Inquisitorial system
- B. Adversarial system
- C. Civil law system
- D. Customary law system
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Q12
mcq
1 mark
The Supreme Court of India has affirmed that __________ was introduced to attract the international mercantile community.
- A. Section 89 of Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
- B. Defence of India Act, 1971
- C. Banking Ombudsman Scheme
- D. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
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Q13
mcq
1 mark
Suman and her neighbour had a long-standing dispute over the boundary of their properties. Frustrated with the delays in court proceedings, they decided to take their case to the Lok Adalat. After hearing both sides, the Lok Adalat suggested a solution, which they accepted, resolving the matter amicably. What can be inferred about the role of Lok Adalat in resolving disputes from the situation given above?
- A. Lok Adalat decisions are binding and cannot be challenged in any situation.
- B. Lok Adalat follows a formal court procedure to settle disputes.
- C. Lok Adalat mainly handles disputes related to criminal offences.
- D. Lok Adalat helps in resolving disputes quickly through mutual agreement.
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Q14
mcq
1 mark
Statement I : International law is based on the principle of equality of states. Statement II : The application and enforcement of international law are often influenced by the political and economic power of certain states.
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
- C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
- D. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
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Q15
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : The Advocates Act, 1961, provides for a single class of legal practitioners called “advocates” and establishes their right to practice in courts across India.
Reason (R) : The Act allows State Governments to regulate the legal profession independently without any Central authority.
Choose the correct option :
- A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Q16
mcq
1 mark
Advocate Meera is representing a client in a high-profile corporate fraud case. During the proceedings, she becomes aware that her client has deliberately withheld crucial financial documents that could impact the case outcome. Although the client insists on keeping the documents undisclosed, the opposing counsel indirectly hints at their existence during cross-examination.
What should Advocate Meera do to uphold professional ethics under the Advocates Act, 1961 ?
- A. Continue representing the client while maintaining confidentiality, as revealing the documents would breach attorney-client privilege.
- B. Advise the client to disclose the documents, but if the client refuses, proceed with the case without revealing them.
- C. Withdraw from the case if the client refuses to disclose the documents, as continuing would amount to professional misconduct.
- D. Privately inform the judge about the documents without informing the client, as duty to the court overrides attorney-client privilege.
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Q16
mcq
1 mark
What should Advocate Meera do to uphold professional ethics under the Advocates Act, 1961 ?
- A. Continue representing the client while maintaining confidentiality, as revealing the documents would breach attorney-client privilege.
- B. Advise the client to disclose the documents, but if the client refuses, proceed with the case without revealing them.
- C. Withdraw from the case if the client refuses to disclose the documents, as continuing would amount to professional misconduct.
- D. Privately inform the judge about the documents without informing the client, as duty to the court overrides attorney-client privilege.
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Q17
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : Lawyers trained in one jurisdiction have to requalify to practice in foreign jurisdictions.
Reason (R) : Different countries have different legal systems and laws are framed according to the particular conditions of that country.
Choose the correct option :
- A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Q18
mcq
1 mark
In which of the following situations can legal aid be denied/withdrawn under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 ?
- A. If the applicant is a victim of human trafficking.
- B. If the applicant is accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment for more than 7 years.
- C. If the applicant has knowingly made a false statement to obtain legal aid.
- D. If the applicant is a woman or child seeking legal aid for a case of domestic violence.
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Q19
mcq
1 mark
Sunita is accused of fraud by her former business partner, who claims that she embezzled company funds. During the trial, the court explains that her business partner must provide sufficient evidence to prove Sunita’s guilt. What does this scenario illustrate about the burden of proof in India ?
- A. The accused must prove their innocence beyond a reasonable doubt.
- B. The court automatically assumes that the accused is guilty.
- C. The responsibility to prove the accused’s guilt lies with the party making the accusation.
- D. Both the accused and the accuser share equal responsibility to prove their case.
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Q20
mcq
1 mark
Statement I : An act is considered intentional in criminal law when it is done willfully and not accidentally or by mistake. Statement II : Mere intention alone is sufficient to affix criminal liability. Choose the correct option :
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
- C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
- D. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
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Q21
short answer
2 marks
(a) How and when can the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court be invoked ? OR (b) State the role of High Courts in Indian Judicial system.
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Q22
short answer
2 marks
Raj and his business partner, Aman, had a dispute over profit-sharing in their company. Despite several discussions, they could not reach a mutual agreement. Raj wanted to avoid a lengthy court battle and suggested mediation as an alternative. Aman, however, was hesitant and unsure whether mediation could be initiated in their case or if they had to go to court first. A lawyer advised them that mediation could be triggered under certain conditions. Based on the case, explain how mediation can be triggered in the legal dispute between Raj and Aman.
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Q23
short answer
2 marks
Explain the importance of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
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Q24
short answer
2 marks
(a) State any two statutory functions of the Bar Council of India. OR (b) Discuss the two outcomes of the Advocates Act, 1961.
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Q25
short answer
2 marks
(a) Elucidate the provisions for free legal aid under criminal law in India. OR (b) State the free legal services that are available to litigants in India under Legal Services Authorities Act.
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Q26
short answer
2 marks
Ajay agrees to sell his car to Anita for ₹ 5 lakh, but only if he secures a job in Mumbai within three months. Identify and define this type of contract. Assess its enforceability in India.
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Q27
short answer
2 marks
The provisions of Article 16 in India protect the rights of backward classes such as Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Explain.
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Q27
short answer
2 marks
The interests of the backward classes like Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes are protected by the provisions of Article 16. Explain.
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Q28
short answer
2 marks
A group of devotees in Y city wanted to organize a religious ceremony in a public park. The municipality denied permission, stating that the ceremony would cause noise pollution and security risks. The devotees argued that under Article 25 of the Constitution of India, this was an infringement of their fundamental right. However, the authorities did not change their decision. Is the action of the municipal body an infringement of Article 25 of the Constitution? Justify your answer.
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Q28
short answer
2 marks
A group of devotees in City Y planned to perform a religious ritual in a public park that involved the use of loudspeakers and firecrackers. The local municipal body refused permission, stating that the ritual could cause noise pollution and pose safety hazards. The devotees argued that this was a violation of their Fundamental Right under Article 25 of the Indian Constitution. The authorities, however, maintained their stance.
Does the municipal body’s action violate Article 25 of the Constitution? Justify your answer.
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Q29
short answer
3 marks
(a) In the evolution of the concept of ‘basic structure’ what is the significance of the Kesavananda Bharati case?
OR
(b) Explain the provisions of Article 143 of the Indian Constitution.
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Q30
short answer
3 marks
(a) The composition of the Lokpal is designed to ensure independence and transparency in investigating corruption cases. Explain the structure of the Lokpal, and state its power.
OR
(b) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013, aims to combat corruption among public servants, including high-ranking officials. Based on the provisions of the Act, answer the following :
(i) Under what circumstances can the Lokpal not investigate a sitting or former Prime Minister ?
(ii) What safeguards are in place regarding the inquiry process against any public servant ?
(ii) Why does the Act exclude Members of Parliament from being investigated for their speeches or votes in Parliament ?
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Q31
short answer
3 marks
Anil, an advocate is representing Priya in a property dispute. Priya reveals certain facts that may weaken her case. She asks Anil to withhold them and bend the truth to win. In this context, assess the duties of an advocate towards his/her clients.
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Q32
short answer
3 marks
Keshav agrees to a land sale with his partner Aditya, receiving a larger share of the proceeds. Later, he discovers that the agreement also imposes additional responsibil
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Q32
short answer
3 marks
Keshav agrees to a land sale with his partner Aditya, receiving a larger share of the proceeds. Later, he discovers that the agreement also imposes additional responsibilities on him, which he wants to reject while keeping the extra money.
(i) Explain the principle of “quod approbo non reprobo” in this context.
(ii) Discuss the legal implications for Keshav if he tries to accept the benefits but reject the obligations of the agreement.
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Q36
short answer
3 marks
Ayesha created a series of paintings and published them in a book. The publisher altered some images and added new illustrations without her consent. What economic rights does Ayesha have regarding the alterations to her paintings ? List any three.
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issues as they suspect that these are not isolated incidents but a broader pattern of neglect and discrimination. 3
Q39
short answer
3 marks
Identify the national body that this community should approach and identify its primary function relevant to their situation.
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Q39
long answer
5 marks
Country ‘A’ and Country ‘B’ are in dispute over a strategically important island with ‘A’ starting resource extraction and ‘B’ seeking an ICJ ruling to halt it. ‘A’ claims its right to extract as a customary practice between the two countries, while ‘B’ justifies its action stating that the International Court of Justice (ICJ) had allowed for such halts in past as well. Explain the scope of ‘Customary International Law’ and ‘past decisions of the ICJ’ in the given scenario.
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Q40
short answer
3 marks
How does this body operate to safeguard the interests of such groups under Indian law ?
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Q40
short answer
5 marks
Riya is a talented baker who opens a small bakery in her neighbourhood. Operating under the name “Riya’s Delights”, Riya will be the only owner and will manage all aspects of the business herself.
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Q42
long answer
5 marks
Trace the historical development of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR). How have these rights evolved to protect creators and innovators over time ?
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Q43
short answer
Differentiate between contingent contracts and wagering agreements.
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Q44
long answer
5 marks
Explain the broad provisions of the NALSA Regulations, 2010 with respect to empanelment of lawyers.
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Q45
long answer
In the light of Legal Services Authorities (Amendment) Act, 2002, explain why the permanent Lok Adalats were instituted. Outline the important provisions regarding the Permanent Lok Adalats.
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Q48
short answer
Identify the type of business ownership Riya has chosen for her bakery.
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Q49
short answer
Outline two merits and two demerits of this type of business entity.
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