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Tamil Nadu State Board · CLASS 12th · Microbiology

TAMIL NADU STATE BOARD CLASS 12 MICROBIOLOGY 2026

48 questions from this CLASS 12th Microbiology paper. Log in as a CLASS 12th student to view solutions.

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Q1 mcq 1 mark
__________ is an example for optical imaging technique.
  • A. CLSM
  • B. LCSM
  • C. Both (a) and (b)
  • D. TEM

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Q2 mcq 1 mark
Lens used in TEM is __________.
  • A. Glass lenses
  • B. Objective lens
  • C. Condenser lenses
  • D. Electromagnetic lens

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Q3 mcq 1 mark
__________ is used to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogen growth on animal tissue.
  • A. Disinfectant
  • B. Bacteriostatic agent
  • C. Antiseptic
  • D. Sanitizer

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Q4 mcq 1 mark
Which one of the following is correct ?
  • A. Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme = Coenzyme
  • B. Apoenzyme + Cofactor = Holoenzyme
  • C. Coenzyme + Cofactor = Holoenzyme
  • D. Holoenzyme + Coenzyme = Apoenzyme

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Q5 mcq 1 mark
The minimum value of $a_w$ for the growth of the micro organisms in foods should be around __________.
  • A. 0.78
  • B. 0.99
  • C. 0.50
  • D. 0.86

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Q6 mcq 1 mark
_________ metabolites are produced in small quantities during industrial production.
  • A. Tertiary
  • B. Secondary
  • C. Neutral
  • D. Primary

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Q7 mcq 1 mark
A gram-positive bacilli possessing metachromatic granules, showing Chinese letters arrangement are characteristic of :
  • A. Bacillus anthracis
  • B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • C. Clostridium perfringens
  • D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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Q8 mcq 1 mark
Flask shaped ulcers in human intestine are related to __________.
  • A. Leishmania
  • B. Giardiasis
  • C. Chaga’s disease
  • D. Amoebiasis

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Q9 mcq 1 mark
Diaper rash is caused by __________.
  • A. Candidiasis
  • B. Dermatophytes
  • C. Cryptococcosis
  • D. Histoplasmosis

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Q10 mcq 1 mark
Cytomegalo viruses are also called as __________.
  • A. Endocrine gland virus
  • B. Salivary gland virus
  • C. HIV
  • D. Thymus gland virus

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Q11 mcq 1 mark
In type II Hypersensitivity reaction, __________ is involved.
  • A. IgM antibody
  • B. IgG antibody
  • C. IgE antibody
  • D. IgG and IgM antibodies

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Q12 mcq 1 mark
The principal start codon corresponds to which amino acid ?
  • A. Methionine
  • B. Valine
  • C. Isoleucine
  • D. Arginine

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Q13 mcq 1 mark
Match : (1)Staphylococcus aureus (2)Streptococcus pyogenes (3)Neisseria meningitidis (4)Vibrio cholerae
  • A. (1) - (ii), (2) - (iii), (3) - (iv), (4) - (i)
  • B. (1) - (i), (2) - (ii), (3) - (iii), (4) - (iv)
  • C. (1) - (iii), (2) - (iv), (3) - (i), (4) - (ii)
  • D. (1) - (iv), (2) - (i), (3) - (ii), (4) - (iii)

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Q13 mcq
Match : (1) Staphylococcus aureus (i) arranged in chains (2) Streptococcus pyogenes (ii) diplococci (3) Neisseria meningitidis (iii) comma shaped (4) Vibrio cholerae (iv) bunch of grapes
  • A. (1) - (ii), (2) - (iii), (3) - (iv), (4) - (i)
  • B. (1) - (i), (2) - (ii), (3) - (iii), (4) - (iv)
  • C. (1) - (iii), (2) - (iv), (3) - (i), (4) - (ii)
  • D. (1) - (iv), (2) - (i), (3) - (ii), (4) - (iii)

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Q14 mcq
Statement (A): Facultative anaerobes can use fermentation under anaerobic condition and carry out aerobic respiration when oxygen is present. Statement (B): Fermentation reoxidizes NADH to $NAD^+$ by converting pyruvic acid into various organic acids.
  • A. Statement (A) is false, (B) is true.
  • B. Both Statement (A) and (B) are true.
  • C. Both Statement (A) and (B) are false.
  • D. Statement (A) is true, (B) is false.

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Q15 mcq
Which among the following is appropriate for secondary screening method ?
  • A. Enrichment culture technique
  • B. Crowded plate technique
  • C. Giant colony technique
  • D. Auxanography

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Q16 short answer
Write the components of PCM.

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Q17 short answer
Define the Minimal Bactericidal Concentration (MBC).

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Q18 short answer
Define Chancre.

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Q19 short answer
Define Germtube.

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Q20 short answer
Give a short note on the Arbo Virus.

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Q21 short answer
What are vectors ? Give examples.

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Q22 short answer
Write any two bacterial food borne disease.

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Q23 short answer
What is Paratenic host ?

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Q24 short answer
Write any two methods of gene transfer.

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Q25 long answer
Write a brief account on the application of fluorescent microscopy.

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Q26 short answer
Write short notes on E-test.

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Q27 short answer
Write the differences between Catabolism and Anabolism.

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Q28 short answer
List out the sources of micro-organism in food.

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Q29 short answer
What is semi-synthetic penicillin ? Give an example.

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Q30 short answer
Write the prophylaxis for Diphtheria.

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Q31 short answer
Write about Arthus reaction.

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Q32 short answer
Explain Cosmids. Write the advantages of using it.

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Q33 long answer
Draw and label the Promastigote and Amastigote of Leishmania donovani.

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Q34 long answer
Explain in detail about monoclonal antibodies. OR Explain the steps involved in citric acid production.

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Q34 long answer 5 marks
(a) Explain in detail about monoclonal antibodies.

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Q34 long answer 5 marks
(b) Explain the steps involved in citric acid production.

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Q35 long answer
Name and explain the toxins and enzymes produced by Staphylococcus aureus. OR Explain the structure of Rabies virus with diagram.

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Q35 long answer 5 marks
(a) Name and explain the toxins and enzymes produced by Staphylococcus aureus.

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Q35 long answer 5 marks
(b) Explain the structure of Rabies virus with diagram.

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Q36 long answer
Explain about EMP Pathway. OR Elaborate on clinical features of histoplasmosis.

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Q36 long answer 5 marks
(a) Explain about EMP Pathway.

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Q36 long answer 5 marks
(b) Elaborate on clinical features of histoplasmosis.

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Q37 long answer
Tabula

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Q37 long answer 5 marks
(a) Tabulate the difference between bacillary dysentery and amoebic dysentery.

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Q37 long answer 5 marks
(b) What are the materials needed to amplify a segment of DNA using PCR ?

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Q38 long answer 5 marks
(a) Explain phenol coefficient test.

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Q38 long answer 5 marks
(b) Describe classification of food.

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