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Q5
mcq
1 mark
During biological treatment of sewage, the masses of bacteria held together by fungal filaments to form mesh like structures are called
-
A.
primary sludge
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B.
flocs
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C.
activated sludge
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D.
anaerobic sludge
Q6
mcq
1 mark
Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of observing DNA separation by agarose gel electrophoresis ?
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A.
DNA can be seen in visible light.
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B.
DNA can be seen without staining in visible light.
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C.
Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
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D.
Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under UV light.
Q7
mcq
1 mark
A phenomenon where a male insect mistakenly identified the patterns of a orchid flower as the female insect partner, and tries to copulate and thereby pollinates the flower is said to be :
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A.
Pseudocopulation
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B.
Pseudopollination
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C.
Pseudoparthenocarpy
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D.
Pseudofertilisation
Q8
mcq
1 mark
Identify the correct labellings in the figure of a fertilised embryo sac of an angiosperm given below :
-
A.
A – zygote, B – degenerating synergids, C – degenerating antipodals, D – PEN
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B.
A – degenerating synergids, B – zygote, C – PEN, D – degenerating antipodals
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C.
A – degenerating antipodals, B – PEN, C – degenerating synergids, D – zygote
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D.
A – degenerating synergids, B – zygote, C – degenerating antipodals, D – PEN
Q10
mcq
1 mark
Match the following genes of the lac operon listed in column ‘A’ with their respective products listed in column ‘B’:
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A.
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
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B.
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
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C.
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
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D.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Q13
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A): AIDS is a syndrome caused by HIV.
Reason (R): HIV is a virus that damages the immune system with DNA as its genetic material.
Select the correct option.
-
A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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C.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
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D.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q14
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A): In molecular diagnosis, single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with radioactive molecule is called a probe. Reason (R): A probe always searches and hybridises with its complementary DNA in a clone of cells.
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A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
-
B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
-
C.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
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D.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q15
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A): In birds the sex of the offspring is determined by males. Reason (R): Males are homogametic while females are heterogametic.
-
A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
-
B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
-
C.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
-
D.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q16
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A): Communities that comprise of more species tend to be more stable. Reason (R): A higher number of species results in less year to year variation in total biomass.
-
A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
-
B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
-
C.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
-
D.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q17
short answer
2 marks
(a) “Farmers prefer apomictic seeds to hybrid seeds.” Justify giving two reasons. OR (b) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of amniocentesis.
Q18
short answer
1 mark
(a) 5' – G A A T T C – 3'
3' – C T T A A G – 5'
Name the restriction enzyme that recognises the given specific sequence of bases. What are such sequence of bases referred to as ?
(b) What are the arrows in the given figure indicating ? Write the result obtained thereafter.
Q19
short answer
1 mark
Observe the population growth curve and answer the questions given below:
(a) State the conditions under which growth curve ‘A’ and growth curve ‘B’ plotted in the graph are possible.
(b) Mention what does ‘K’ in the graph represent.
Q20
short answer
2 marks
Explain how are plants benefitted by their association with “Glomus species”.
Q21
short answer
2 marks
If the base adenine constitutes 31% of an isolated DNA fragment, then write what will be the expected percentage of the base cytosine in it. Explain how did you arrive at the answer given.
Q22
short answer
3 marks
Identify a, b, c, d, e and f in the table given below :
Sl. No. Organism Bioactive Molecule Use
1. Monascus purpureus a b
2. c d Antibiotic
3. e Cyclosporin A f
Q22
short answer
3 marks
Identify a, b, c, d, e and f in the table given below:
Q23
long answer
3 marks
(a) Tropical regions harbour more species than the temperate regions. How have biologists tried to explain this in their own ways ? Explain.
Q23
long answer
3 marks
(b) (i) What does an ecological pyramid represent ? (ii) The Ecological pyramids may have an ‘upright’ or an ‘inverted’ shape. Justify with the help of suitable examples.
Q24
long answer
3 marks
(a) What are transgenic animals ? (b) Name the transgenic animal having the largest number amongst all the existing transgenic animals. (c) State any 3 reasons for which these types of animals are being produced.
Q25
long answer
3 marks
If the cells in the leaves of a maize plant contain 10 chromosomes each, write the number of chromosomes in its endosperm and zygote. Name and explain the process by which an endosperm and a zygote are formed in maize.
Q26
long answer
3 marks
(a) Why does DNA replication occur within a replication fork and not in its entire length simultaneously ? (b) “DNA replication is continuous and discontinuous on the two strands within the replication fork.” Explain with the help of a schematic representation.
Q26
short answer
1 mark
Name the hormones and their source organ, which are responsible for menstrual cycle at puberty.
Q27
long answer
3 marks
Explain the processing of heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) into a fully functional mRNA in eukaryotes. Where does this processing occur in the cell ?
Q27
short answer
1 mark
For successful pregnancy, at what phase of the menstrual cycle an early embryo (upto 3 blastomeres) should be implanted in the Uterus (IUT) of a human female who has opted for Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) ? Support your answer with a reason.
Q28
long answer
3 marks
The world is facing accelerated rates of species extinction largely due to human activities. Explain any three human activities responsible for accelerated rates of species extinction.
Q28
short answer
2 marks
Name the hormone and its source organ responsible for the events occurring during proliferative phase of menstrual cycle. Explain the event.
Q29
long answer
1 mark
In a human female, the reproductive phase starts on the onset of puberty and ceases around middle age of the female. Study the graph given below regarding menstrual cycle and answer the questions that follow : (a) Name the hormones and their source organ, which are responsible for menstrual cycle at puberty. 1 (b) For successful pregnancy, at what phase of the menstrual cycle an early embryo (upto 3 blastomeres) should be Implanted in the Uterus (IUT) of a human female who has opted for Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) ? Support your answer with a reason. 1 (c) Name the hormone and its source organ responsible for the events occurring during p
Q29
short answer
In a human female, the reproductive phase starts on the onset of puberty and ceases around middle age of the female. Study the graph given below regarding menstrual cycle and answer the questions that follow :
Q29
short answer
2 marks
In a normal human female, why does menstruation only occurs if the released ovum is not fertilised ? Explain.
Reading Passage
Mosquitoes are drastically affecting the human health in almost all the developing tropical countries. Different species of mosquitoes cause very fatal diseases so much so that many humans loose their life and if they survive, are unable to put in productive hours to sustain their life. With the result the health index of the country goes down.
Q30
short answer
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
“Mosquitoes are drastically affecting the human health in almost all the developing tropical countries. Different species of mosquitoes cause very fatal diseases so much so that many humans loose their life and if they survive, are unable to put in productive hours to sustain their life. With the result the health index of the country goes down.”
Q31
short answer
1 mark
Name the form in which Plasmodium gains entry into (i) human body (ii) the female Anopheles body.
Q31
long answer
5 marks
(a) (i) Draw a schematic diagram of the cloning vector pBR 322 and label (1) Bam HI site (2) gene for ampicillin resistance (3) ori (4) rop gene.
(ii) State the role of rop gene.
(iii) A cloning vector does not have a selectable marker. How will it affect the process of cloning?
(iv) Why is insertional inactivation preferred over the use of selectable markers in cloning vectors?
Q32
long answer
2 marks
Why do the symptoms of malaria not appear in a person immediately after being bitten by an infected female Anopheles ? Give one reason. Explain when and how do the symptoms of the disease would appear.
Q32
long answer
4 marks
(a) (i) Draw a diagram of a human sperm. Label any four parts and write their functions.
(ii) In a human female, probability of an ovum to get fertilized by more than one sperm is impossible. Give reason.
Q33
short answer
2 marks
Explain the events which occur within a female Anopheles mosquito after it has sucked blood from a malaria patient.
Q33
long answer
5 marks
(a) Natural selection operates in different ways in nature.
(i) Identify the type of natural selection depicted in the graph above.
(ii) In England after industrialisation, the population of dark winged moths were more favoured than white winged moth. Explain.
(iii) Anthropogenic action can enhance the rate of evolution. Explain with the help of an example.
Q34
short answer
1 mark
Name a species of mosquito other than female Anopheles and the disease, for which it carries the pathogen.
Q36
long answer
5 marks
(b) (i) Name the nematode (scientific name) that infects the roots of tobacco plant and reduces its yield.
(ii) Name the vector that is used to introduce nematode-specific genes into the host plant (tobacco).
(iii) How do sense and anti-sense RNAs function?
(iv) Why could parasite not survive in a transgenic tobacco plant?
Q38
long answer
4 marks
(b) (i) With the help of labelled diagram only, show the different stages of embryo development in a dicot plant.
(ii) Endosperm development precedes embryo development. Justify.
Q40
long answer
5 marks
(b) (i) Why did Hershey and Chase use $^{35}S$ and $^{32}P$ in their experiment? Explain.
(ii) State the importance of (1) blending and (2) centrifugation in their experiment.
(iii) Write the conclusion they arrived at the end of their experiment.