Q1
mcq
1 mark
The natural source of enzyme barnase and barstar, a system used to achieve male sterile plant is :
- A. Bacillus subtilis
- B. Bartonella henselae
- C. Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
- D. Barnesville coli
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Q2
mcq
1 mark
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease is caused due to the absence of :
- A. Adenosine diphosphate
- B. Adenosine deaminase
- C. Adenosine cyclase
- D. Guanidine nitrate
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Q3
mcq
1 mark
Single nucleotide polymorphisms usually occur in __________ regions.
- A. Coding
- B. Non-coding
- C. Regulatory
- D. Exonic
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Q4
mcq
1 mark
Artificial seeds are produced by encapsulating the somatic embryos at the ___________ stage in a protective coating.
- A. Torpedo
- B. Globular
- C. Cotyledon
- D. Triangular
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Q5
mcq
1 mark
The peptide hormones and growth factors to promote healthy growth of animal cells in vitro are often derived from :
- A. Phenol red
- B. Antibiotics
- C. Blood serum
- D. Amino acids
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Q6
mcq
1 mark
Identify the vector that infects E. coli cells containing F-plasmid and that has a single-stranded circular genome :
- A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- B. YEp
- C. pBR322
- D. M13
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Q7
mcq
1 mark
An example of secondary metabolites produced by microbial cells include :
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Q8
mcq
1 mark
When a transgene from a Genetically Modified crop escapes through pollen to a related plant species, it is known as _______.
- A. Gene transfer
- B. Gene pollution
- C. DNA contamination
- D. Toxicity transfer
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Q9
mcq
1 mark
A protein ion with a molecular weight of 10,000 Daltons carried a charge of $5^+$ and was subjected to mass spectrometric analysis. Calculate its mass to charge ratio.
- A. 2001
- B. 2000
- C. 2501
- D. 5001
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Q10
mcq
1 mark
Embryonic stem cells derived from blastocyst stage of the embryo are ___________ in nature.
- A. Totipotent
- B. Pluripotent
- C. Multipotent
- D. Bipotent
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Q11
mcq
1 mark
An improved strain of Penicillium, capable of producing higher concentration of antibiotic penicillin is :
- A. Penicillium notatum
- B. Penicillium chrysogenum
- C. Penicillium eutrophus
- D. Penicillium cerevisiae
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Q12
mcq
1 mark
___________ cultures can be maintained for a prolonged period of time by repeated sub-culturing.
- A. Ovary
- B. Protoplast
- C. Callus
- D. Mass cell
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Q13
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : Some experts believe that there must be more than 30,000 genes in human genome.
Reason (R) : Unreliability of in silico gene prediction is responsible for reporting lesser number of genes in human genome.
- A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Q14
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : The exact chemical composition of complex microbial growth media is known.
Reason (R) : Complex nutrient media is used when specific growth requirement of a microorganism is unknown.
- A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Q15
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : The regulation of pH is essential for survival of mammalian cells.
Reason (R) : Animal cell cultures mostly make use of Bicarbonate carbon dioxide buffering system to maintain pH.
- A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Q16
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : During plant tissue culture, the explants are treated with sodium hypochlorite.
Reason (R) : Sodium hypochlorite helps in acclimatization of the regenerated plants.
- A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Q17
short answer
2 marks
Illustrate steps to show the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule.
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Q18
short answer
2 marks
What are the advantages offered by creating mouse model with gene knockout ?
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Q19
short answer
2 marks
Name the technique that helps to study the entire protein profile from a given cell type. Briefly explain the principle of this method.
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Q20
short answer
2 marks
Write about any two strategies available to enhance the production of secondary metabolites in plant genetic engineering.
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Q21
short answer
2 marks
(a) Give any two drawbacks of animal cell culture in vitro.
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Q22
short answer
2 marks
An oncologist is performing colony formation assay on tumour cells from a patient. What is he trying to determine ?
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Q22
short answer
3 marks
(a) Compare the techniques of FISH with Microarray in terms of principle and applications.
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Q22
short answer
3 marks
(b) Differentiate between Expression and Functional Proteomics.
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Q22
short answer
3 marks
Compare the techniques of FISH with Microarray in terms of principle and applications. OR Differentiate between Expression and Functional Proteomics.
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Q23
short answer
2 marks
Animal cells growing in culture show the property of contact inhibition. Relate this to what happens in an adult human body.
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Q23
short answer
3 marks
Write the therapeutic use and the animal cell line employed in obtaining any three of the following protein pharmaceuticals :
(A) Erythropoietin
(B) Herceptin
(C) Interleukin 2
(D) Tissue plasminogen activator
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Q24
short answer
3 marks
Explain the steps involved in PCR amplification method.
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Q25
short answer
3 marks
A researcher performed protein fingerprinting on hemoglobin from both normal and sickled red blood cells. Complete the flow-chart of the process by filling A, B, and C. Normal RBC Sickled RBC Hemoglobin Sickled Hemoglobin Treat with A B Paper Chromatography C of non-overlapping and eluted peptide
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Q26
short answer
3 marks
Discuss any three ways that can be employed to measure microbial cell growth.
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Q27
short answer
3 marks
What are zymogens? How is chymotrypsinogen different from chymotrypsin?
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Q28
short answer
3 marks
Give the names of any three genes that are used as selectable markers in recombinant DNA technology. Also mention the trait/protein they specify.
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Q29
short answer
Carefully read the below mentioned flow-chart and answer the questions that follow: Flow-chart scheme for isolation of Protein A is as given below: Isolation of Microbial Product Fermentation Broth Centrifugation Clear Broth Cell Mass Solvent Extraction/Chromatography Concentrated Metabolite Purification and Crystallization Pure Protein A (a) Write whether Protein A is of intra or extra cellular origin. (b) Which step in the given purification scheme is metabolite specific? (c) Give the purification scheme for isolation of Humulin from E. coli OR (c) Why is it advisable to use lesser number of steps for downstream processing?
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Q30
short answer
Consider the following table and answer questions: Given is a list of ingredients used for preparation of plant nutrient medium. Plant Growth Media Ingredients Amount NH4NO3 1650 mg/L CaCl2 440 mg/L MnSO4 22 mg/L FeSO4 27 mg/L Glycine 2 mg/L KNO3 1900 mg/L Sucrose 3 g/mL Inositol 100 mg/L EDTA 33 mg/L (a) Which component in the given list is acting as the carbon source? (b) Which ingredient has been used to fulfill vitamin requirement? (c) Name two phytohormones which are generally added to prepare plant nutrient media. OR (c) Explain how the sterilization of the growth media is achieved in the laboratory.
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Q31
short answer
(a) (i) Explain the reason for therapeutic use of whey proteins.
(ii) Name any two diseases that have been treated with whey.
(iii) Curd is advised to be administered with antibiotics. Why?
OR
(b) (i) Discuss the development of a novel protein.
(ii) Name any two properties that can be manipulated using Protein Engineering.
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Q32
short answer
(a) (i) ddNTP cause the growing DNA chains to terminate prematurely. Explain how.
(ii) Briefly write the steps of DNA sequencing.
OR
(b) (i) During DNA sequencing, why is the autoradiogram read from bottom to top to arrive at the original sequence?
(ii) Why is single tube DNA sequencing considered better and safer?
(iii) To perform DNA sequencing of a strand, we need to clone the sequence in a single-stranded form. Which vector will you prefer for this?
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Q33
short answer
(a) (i) Name three database retrieval tools available from the NCBI. What all do they allow us to access?
(ii) What kind of information is available in UniProtKB and PDB databases?
OR
(b) (i) How is BLAST used to analyses sequence similarity? Explain.
(ii) Name the computer programmes that can perform gene prediction for bacterial and eukaryotic genomes.
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