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Q1
mcq
1 mark
The formation of inclusion bodies in microbial cell culture is associated with:
-
A.
Incorrect folding and intracellular accumulation of recombinant proteins.
-
B.
Incorrect folding and extracellular secretion of recombinant proteins.
-
C.
Enhanced cell growth.
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D.
Lack of nutrients in the medium
Correct Answer: A —
Solution
Inclusion bodies are aggregates formed inside microbial cells when recombinant proteins are produced in excess and are incorrectly folded. Hence, they are associated with incorrect folding and intracellular accumulation of recombinant proteins. Options B, C and D are incorrect because inclusion bodies are not formed due to extracellular secretion, enhanced growth, or lack of nutrients.
Q2
mcq
1 mark
The incubators used to culture mammalian cells are maintained at:
-
A.
30% CO$_2$
-
B.
2% CO$_2$
-
C.
5-10% CO$_2$
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D.
15-20% CO$_2$
Correct Answer: C —
Solution
Mammalian cell cultures are maintained in incubators with about 5–10% CO$_2$, usually around 5%, to keep the pH of the culture medium stable. The other options are incorrect because 30%, 2%, and 15–20% CO$_2$ are not the standard conditions used for mammalian cell culture.
Q10
mcq
1 mark
Which of the following statements is correct for use in diagnostics and therapeutics ?
-
A.
Monoclonal antibodies are preferred over polyclonal antibodies.
-
B.
Antibiotics are preferred over antibodies.
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C.
Antibodies are not used at all.
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D.
Only polyclonal antibodies are used.
Correct Answer: A —
Solution
Monoclonal antibodies are preferred over polyclonal antibodies in diagnostics and therapeutics because they are highly specific, uniform, and can be produced in large amounts with consistent quality. Antibiotics are not substitutes for antibodies, and antibodies are definitely used in diagnosis and treatment. Polyclonal antibodies are less specific and therefore less preferred.
Q11
mcq
1 mark
Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms can occur :
-
A.
only in the coding regions of a genome.
-
B.
only in the non-coding regions of a genome.
-
C.
in both coding and non-coding regions of a genome.
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D.
in mitochondrial DNA only
Correct Answer: C —
Solution
Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) can occur in both coding and non-coding regions of the genome. They are single base changes that may or may not affect protein function depending on their location. Therefore, option C is correct.
Q12
mcq
1 mark
SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency) is caused due to deficiency of which enzyme ?
-
A.
Adenosine deaminase
-
B.
Amylase
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C.
Lipase
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D.
Reverse Transcriptase
Correct Answer: A —
Solution
SCID is commonly caused by deficiency of adenosine deaminase (ADA). ADA deficiency leads to severe impairment of immune function, especially affecting T and B lymphocytes. The other enzymes listed—amylase, lipase, and reverse transcriptase—are not responsible for SCID.
Q13
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : The human embryonic stem cells can be derived from the inner cell mass of blastocyst and cultured in a suitable nutrient medium.
Reason (R) : It is possible to selectively remove a gene and make precise genetic modification in mouse embryonic stem cells.
-
A.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
-
B.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
-
C.
Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
-
D.
Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q14
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : Mutation selection technique identifies micro organisms that have been improved by induced mutations.
Reason (R) : Mutations cannot be induced by irradiations in micro-organisms.
-
A.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
-
B.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
-
C.
Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
-
D.
Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q15
mcq
1 mark
Assertion (A) : M13 bacteriophage uses rolling circle mechanism for DNA replication.
Reason (R) : During rolling circle mechanism, double stranded replicative form of DNA is formed which replicates until there are about its hundred copies in the host bacterial cell.
-
A.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
-
B.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
-
C.
Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
-
D.
Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q19
short answer
2 marks
What is meant by ‘Gene knock out’ ? How is it useful in developing mouse models for studying human diseases ?
Q20
short answer
2 marks
How is chymotrypsinogen converted to chymotrypsin in the duodenum ? What is the name of this process ?
Q21
short answer
2 marks
Even if we know where the genes are present in a genome, it is not entirely clear how to count them. Give two reasons for this problem.
Q22
short answer
3 marks
Briefly explain the process of sickling of Red Blood Cells (RBCs) during sickle cell anaemia. Why does sickle celled RBCs lead to anaemic conditions in patients ?
Q22
short answer
1 mark
Name the genes which fuse during translocation in Philadelphia chromosome.
Q23
short answer
3 marks
How does the metagenomics approach helps to identify novel genes present in an environment ? Explain the process.
Q23
short answer
1 mark
During FISH technique, is any fluorescence detected in the der 9 chromosome? Why?
Q24
short answer
3 marks
What is the use of introducing the property of delayed fruit ripening in some plants ? Explain the methods used for delaying fruit ripening.
Q24
short answer
2 marks
Briefly describe Nick Translation technique.
Q25
short answer
3 marks
Mention the catalytic traid (along with diagram) which contributes to the enzymatic activity of native subtilisin. Why was this enzyme improved by protein engineering ? Write the method used in this process.
Q25
short answer
3 marks
Since many centuries, whey has been used for the treatment of numerous ailments. Briefly elaborate upon the scientific relevance of it.
Q25
short answer
2 marks
How is CML detected by FISH techniques?
Q26
short answer
3 marks
Selection methods are based on the expression or non-expression of certain traits in recombinant microbial cells. Enlist such any th
Q26
short answer
1 mark
Enlist any two limitations of batch culture.
Q27
long answer
3 marks
(a) Explain briefly the procedures of the following techniques used in recombinant DNA Technology :
(i) Transfection
(ii) Electroporation
(iii) Biolistics
OR
(b) Describe the Blue-White selection method of screening for the presence of recombinant plasmids.
Q27
short answer
1 mark
What does the term ‘fed’ in fed-batch culture refer to?
Q28
short answer
3 marks
How can you differentiate between cancerous and non-cancerous cells in culture by microscopic examination ? Give one example of each of such cell types.
Q28
short answer
2 marks
Write the significance of using a turbidostat and a chemostat in continuous culture system.
Q29
long answer
In human beings, Chronic Mylogenous Leukemia (CML) is caused due to the reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22. This translocation is detected by Fluorescence in-situ hybridisation (FISH) technique in such patients, and severity of the disease is observed.
(i) Name the genes which fuse during translocation in Philadelphia chromosome. 1
(ii) During FISH technique, is any fluorescence detected in the der 9 chromosome ? Why ? 1
(iii) (a) Briefly describe Nick Translation technique. 2
OR
(b) How is CML detected by FISH techniques ? 2
Q29
short answer
2 marks
Draw labelled graphical representations of Batch and continuous culture systems.
Q30
long answer
Microbial culture works are classified based on how nutrients are supplied and culture is maintained during the fermentation process as :
(A) Batch Culture : This is a closed system with fixed amount of nutrient medium.
(B) Fed-Batch culture : In this system, fresh nutrients are added during growth, but culture is not removed.
(C) Continuous culture : This is a culture system where fresh medium containing a limited nutrient is added when required and an equal volume of the culture is removed.
(i) Enlist any two limitations of batch culture. 1
(ii) What does the term ‘fed’ in fed-batch culture refer to ? 1
(iii) (a) Write the si
Q30
long answer
5 marks
Explain the steps involved in the development of Golden Rice through genetic engineering and mention its advantages in providing nutrition. How was Golden Rice further engineered?
Q31
long answer
5 marks
What is the full form of RFLP ? State its basic principle and mention any two important applications.