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Q1
mcq
1 mark
In a landmark case, the Supreme Court was handling a highly technical environmental dispute involving multiple stakeholders and scientific complexities. Given the intricate details of environmental policies and scientific evidence, the Court appointed an amicus curiae, an expert in environmental law and science, to assist by providing impartial information and insights on the matter. The amicus curiae made recommendations based on international standards, which helped the Court in reaching its final decision. Based on the concept of amicus curiae, which of the following statements is correct ?
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A.
The amicus curiae advocates for the interests of the public and acts as a representative for the government.
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B.
The amicus curiae serves as the legal advisor to the party that requests their assistance in the case.
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C.
The amicus curiae assists the Court by providing impartial expertise on complex issues, without representing any party in the case.
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D.
The amicus curiae is only allowed to assist in cases related to constitutional matters.
Reading Passage
Supreme Court was handling a highly technical environmental dispute involving multiple stakeholders and scientific complexities. Given the intricate details of environmental policies and scientific evidence, the Court appointed an amicus curiae, an expert in environmental law and science, to assist by providing impartial information and insights on the matter. The amicus curiae made recommendations based on international standards, which helped the Court in reaching its final decision.
Q1
mcq
1 mark
Based on the concept of amicus curiae, which of the following statements is correct ?
-
A.
The amicus curiae advocates for the interests of the public and acts as a representative for the government.
-
B.
The amicus curiae serves as the legal advisor to the party that requests their assistance in the case.
-
C.
The amicus curiae assists the Court by providing impartial expertise on complex issues, without representing any party in the case.
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D.
The amicus curiae is only allowed to assist in cases related to constitutional matters.
Q2
mcq
1 mark
A High Court in India issues a verdict in a complex property dispute, which left one party dissatisfied with the decision. The aggrieved party seeks to challenge the verdict by filing an appeal. Under Article 136, the Supreme Court can grant special leave to appeal against a judgment, decree or order of which of the following?
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A.
Any court or tribunal in India
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B.
Only High Court
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C.
Only subordinate courts
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D.
Only tribunals
Q2
mcq
1 mark
A High Court in India issues a verdict in a complex property dispute, which left one party dissatisfied with the decision. The aggrieved party now seeks to approach the Supreme Court for special leave to appeal. Under Article 136, the Supreme Court can grant special leave to appeal against any judgement, decree or order in any matter passed by :
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A.
any court or tribunal in India
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B.
only High Court
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C.
only subordinate court
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D.
only tribunals
Q3
mcq
1 mark
Assertion : (A) : Any public-spirited person can file petition or write letters to court on behalf of aggrieved persons.
Reasoning (R) : Courts have liberalized the doctrine of locus standi of the enforcement of fundamental rights through Public Interest Litigations (PILs).
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A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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C.
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
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D.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q4
mcq
1 mark
Arjun, at the request of the local community leader, builds a playground for the children in his neighborhood, spending a considerable amount of his own money. Later, Ravi, a local snack vendor, sets up a stall near the playground to sell snacks to children and promises to give Arjun 10% of his profits from all sales as a token of appreciation for building the playground. However, Ravi fails to pay Arjun the promised percentage, and Arjun decides to take legal action to recover it. Based on contract law principles, which of the following is correct ?
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A.
Arjun is entitled to the percentage of profits as Ravi benefited from his efforts in building the playground.
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B.
Arjun cannot claim the percentage of profits, as the playground was built at the request of the community leader and not Ravi.
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C.
Ravi must pay Arjun the promised percentage since he made a verbal commitment to do so.
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D.
Ravi has to pay Arjun only if Arjun can prove the playground was built specifically for his benefit.
Q5
mcq
1 mark
Ravi, at a local market, was involved in an argument with Mohan over a disputed transaction. In the heat of the argument, Ravi suddenly pushed Mohan forcefully, causing Mohan to stumble backward and fall. Mohan suffered a minor injury to his back as a result of the fall. Mohan believes that Ravi’s action was an intentional physical contact that resulted in harm, and he is considering suing Ravi for the tort of battery. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tort of battery in this case ?
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A.
Ravi’s action of pushing Mohan constitutes battery, as it was an intentional and direct application of physical force.
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B.
Ravi is not liable for battery because the physical contact was not severe enough to cause significant injury.
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C.
The tort of battery requires that the defendant’s action must cause permanent injury, which is not the case here.
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D.
Ravi is not liable for battery because his action was a part of self-defense act, even if there was no immediate threat to his safety.
Q5
mcq
1 mark
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tort of battery in this case?
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A.
Ravi’s action of pushing Mohan constitutes battery, as it was an intentional and direct application of physical force.
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B.
Ravi is not liable for battery because the physical contact was not severe enough to cause significant injury.
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C.
The tort of battery requires that the defendant’s action must cause permanent injury, which is not the case here.
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D.
Ravi is not liable for battery because his action was a part of self-defense act, even if there was no immediate threat to his safety.
Q6
mcq
1 mark
Raj signs a contract to perform at a music festival. A few days before the festival, Raj develops a severe illness and doctors advise him complete rest. He misses the performance. Organisers of the event had to cut a sorry figure as Raj’s performance was the highlight of the music festival. Which of the given statements best describes Raj’s inability to perform at the festival ?
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A.
It is breach of contract as Raj failed to fulfill his obligation.
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B.
I
Q7
mcq
1 mark
Neha, a photographer, takes a beautiful photograph of a sunset and posts it on her personal blog. A local travel magazine uses the image without Neha’s permission. The publishers credit Neha as the photographer but do not pay her or seek her consent. Neha considers taking legal action against the magazine. In this context which of the following options is correct?
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A.
Neha cannot take legal action because the magazine credited her as the photographer.
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B.
Neha can take legal action because her photograph is protected by copyright and the magazine used it without permission.
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C.
Neha cannot take legal action because the photograph was available for the general public on her blog.
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D.
Neha can only take legal action if she had registered the photograph with a copyright office.
Q8
mcq
1 mark
A company, XYZ Corp., operates a large dam to generate electricity. Due to an unforeseen design flaw the dam suddenly bursts, causing massive flooding in a nearby town. The company had taken all standard safety measures and had no knowledge of the design flaw. The affected residents sue the company for damages. Which of the following is applicable in this instance ?
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A.
The company is not liable because the flaw was unforeseen.
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B.
The company is absolutely liable because the operation of the dam is inherently dangerous and the damages occurred regardless of the fault.
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C.
The company is liable only if it is proven that they ignored warning signs of the flaw.
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D.
The company is not liable because it followed all safety protocols.
Q9
mcq
1 mark
Mohan lends his rare antique vase to his friend Sumit for a week. Instead of returning it, Sumit accidentally drops and shatters the vase while showing it to another friend. When Mohan asks for his vase to be returned, Sumit apologizes but says there is nothing he can do now that the vase is destroyed. Mohan decides to take legal action. Identify the legal claim he should pursue ?
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A.
He should file a claim for trespass to chattels because Sumit damaged the vase while it was in his possession.
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B.
He should file a claim for trespass to chattels because Sumit used the vase without permission.
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C.
He should file a claim for conversion because Sumit destroyed the vase, depriving him of its use permanently.
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D.
He should file a claim for conversion because Sumit delayed returning the vase.
Q10
mcq
1 mark
From the options given below, which statement accurately describes the process of property registration in India ?
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A.
The buyer and seller exchange property documents without involving any government authority.
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B.
The property is officially transferred from the seller to the buyer through a government-authorised deed, affixed by a seal of the Registrar’s office.
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C.
The buyer must pay property taxes before the sale is completed – without the need for any legal documentation.
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D.
The property ownership is verified by a local official but no formal record is kept.
Q11
mcq
1 mark
In a criminal trial in a country in continental Europe, the judge, Judge Helena plays an active role in investigating the case. She questions the witnesses, evaluates the evidences presented by the parties and orders additional forensic test. The defense lawyer, Mr. Jameson, expresses concern that the judge’s active involvement in the investigation may undermine the fairness of the trial. In the given content, identify the probable disadvantage of the justice dispensation system that is concerning for the defense lawyer.
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A.
The active role of judge would prevent delays and prolonged trials.
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B.
Stronger party in the case, with more resources and expert lawyers may not be able to influence the judges.
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C.
The judge can no longer remain neutral to evaluate the case with an open mind.
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D.
Less reliance is placed on cross examination and other techniques used by lawyers.
Q12
mcq
1 mark
An advantage of _________ is that there is no strict application of the procedural laws and the disputing parties can directly interact with the judges.
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A.
Mediation
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B.
Lok Adalat
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C.
Conciliation
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D.
Tribunal
Q13
mcq
1 mark
Omega Builders and Delta Constructions have a dispute over project delays. The court suggest mediation, but Omega Builders is unsure if their case qualifies. According to the Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. vs. Cherian Varley Construction Co. ruling, which disputes are generally excluded from mediation?
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A.
Commercial contracts
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B.
Matrimonial and Custody issues
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C.
Criminal offenses
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D.
Consumer disputes
Q14
mcq
1 mark
Statement 1 : Opinio juris prevents unwanted general practice from becoming customary law.
Statement 2 : Opinio juris is the belief that an action was carried out as a legal obligation.
Choose the correct option :
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A.
Both statements are correct.
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B.
Both statements are incorrect.
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C.
Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
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D.
Statement 2 is correct but Statement 1 is not correct.
Q15
mcq
1 mark
Assertion : (A) : The Solicitor Regulation Authority (SRA) does not impose any formal experience requirement for requalifying as solicitor in England and Wales.
Reasoning (R) : It is not possible to be a barrister and solicitor.
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A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Q16
mcq
1 mark
Me Ling Hang-Kang is a practicing lawyer. She is planning a marketing campaign to attract more clients. Which of the following is a possible option for her?
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A.
To advertise on all modes of communication as lawyers are independent to do so without violation of any restrictions.
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B.
To advertise in newspapers and print media.
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C.
To advertise but must not include testimonials, success rates or any comparative description.
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D.
To refrain from any form of advertising as it is completely prohibited for them in Hong Kong.
Q17
mcq
1 mark
Assertion : (A) : A Senior Advocate is not entitled to appear in the Supreme Court without an Advocate-on-record.
Reasoning (R) : Advocates-on-record are entitled to file an appearance or act for a party in the Supreme Court.
-
A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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C.
(A) is true, (R) is false.
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D.
(A) is false, (R) is true.
Q18
mcq
1 mark
In light of the principles enshrined in Article 39A, which of the following circumstances contradicts its core objective of equal justice and free legal aid ?
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A.
The state provides legal aid to economically disadvantages citizens facing criminal prosecution.
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B.
A wealthy individual is given legal aid despite having adequate resources to access private legal counsel.
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C.
A marginalized person is granted legal representation in a civil matter by the state.
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D.
The state facilities access to justice for those affected by socio-economic disabilities.
Q19
mcq
1 mark
“Most accused persons do not lead defence evidence in India.” Identify the reason for this from the options given below.
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A.
The burden to prove the offence beyond reasonable doubt is on the prosecution.
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B.
The judge decides the case on its merit according to the evidences presented by the defence.
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C.
The assertion that the accused has committed offence is sufficient to prove the guilt by prosecution.
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D.
The accused is presumed guilty at the first instance when the trial begins.
Q20
mcq
1 mark
Statement 1 : The Evidence Law helps the judges to separate the ‘Wheat from the Chaff ’.
Statement 2 : The function of the law of evidence is to provide a mechanism for the investigation and trial of offenders.
Choose the correct option :
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A.
Both statements are correct.
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B.
Both statements are incorrect.
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C.
Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct.
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D.
Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is not correct.
Q21
short answer
2 marks
Explain the principle of judicial review.
Q22
short answer
2 marks
Sunil and Asha are co-founders of a tech-startup. Recently they had a contractual disagreement with their software vendor regarding the delivery timeline of a critical project. Sunil insisted on filing a lawsuit, whereas Asha suggested resolution by appointing a neutral third party who could facilitate the parties in achieving an acceptable, voluntary agreement. Sunil agreed and their matter was resolved within two weeks.
(i) Identify the method of dispute resolution adopted by Sunil and Asha.
(ii) Give any two advantages of adopting alternate dispute resolution mechanism by the parties.
Q23
short answer
2 marks
A nation engages in human rights violations within its own borders, including acts of genocide against a specific ethnic group. Under ergaomnes obligations, what are the legal responsibilities of the international community, even if there is no direct threat to neighbouring states?
Q24
short answer
2 marks
(a) Describe, citing any two examples, how the rules of advertising by lawyers differs from country to country.
OR
(b) During a court proceeding, an advocate finds out that their client intends to provide false evidence. What should the advocate do in this situation to adhere to their professional duty toward the court and uphold ethical standards?
Q25
short answer
2 marks
(a) State the purpose of the Legal Services Authorities (Amendment) Act 2002.
OR
(b) Enlist any four legal services given to any beneficiary under the provision of free legal aid.
Q26
short answer
2 marks
Jai, a business owner, enters into an agreement with Sana, a government official. Jai promises to pay Sana ` 10 lakhs in exchange for her influence in securing a lucrative government contract for his company. Both parties sign the agreement and begin to execute it. Identify the nature of this agreement and discuss the legal consequences for both parties involved.
Q27
short answer
2 marks
A group of citizens in a city regularly engages in public protests against government policies. During one protest, some individuals damage public property, disrupt traffic, and use offensive language. The protestors claim that they are exercising their right to freedom of speech and expression.
Is the claim by the protestors justified? How do the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Constitution of India apply in this situation?
Q28
short answer
2 marks
(a) State any two key features of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution.
OR
(b) Give any two differences between fundamental rights and human rights.
Q33
short answer
3 marks
(a) Name the statutory body that was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. State the two principal functions to be performed by this body.
Q33
short answer
3 marks
(b) State the significance of the Stockholm Declaration, 1972. Establish the relationship between Stockholm Declaration, 1972 and Earth Summit, 1992.
Q34
short answer
3 marks
What are the key principles outlined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) and how do they reflect the foundational values of human dignity, freedom and equality ?
Q35
short answer
3 marks
In a juveniles custodial home, several juveniles report being subject to harsh disciplinary measures, including excessive physical punishment and prolonged isolation. Some also mentioned that their complaints about inadequate food and unsanitary living conditions are being ignored by the school administration. Identify the national body which can be approached. How can this body address the violation of the rights of juveniles ?
Q36
short answer
3 marks
Sneha started a beauty care brand called “Glow Essence”, offering organic skin care products. Within a year her brand gained popularity for its quality and natural ingredients. However, Sneha discovered that another company was selling low quality skin care products under the similar name leading to confusion among customers. This damaged her brand’s reputation.
On consulting a legal expert Sneha learned that “Glow Essence” is a trade name and not a trade mark. She initiated the registration process.
(i) Differentiate between a trade name and a trade mark.
(ii) Explain, how registration of “Glow Essence” benefit Sneha.
Q39
long answer
5 marks
The countries of Novara and Elderia are in a dispute over the construction of a dam on the river Nelara – with Elderia bringing the case to the International Court of Justice (ICJ). Novara argues that past ICJ rulings in similar cases should guide the decision, while Elderia insists on a fresh interpretation of the law. Analyze how Articles 59, 38 and 38(1) of the Statute of ICJ would influence the court’s decision-making in this case.
Q40
long answer
5 marks
Vikram, a skilled graphic designer, has been running his design studio as a sole proprietorship. Over time, his business has grown, and he started handling larger projects with higher risks. While he enjoys the simplicity of managing his sole proprietorship, he is worried about his personal liability if something goes wrong. On the advice of his friend, Vikram is considering converting his business into a One Person Company (OPC) to limit his liability and improve his business’s credibility. Based on the above case, compare Sole proprietorship and One Person Company (OPC). Which form of business entity would be better for Vikram and why ?