Q1
mcq
1 mark
Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose the correct answer from the given options:
- A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- C. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
- D. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
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Q2
mcq
1 mark
Which one of the following is related to the traditional notion of security ?
- A. Russia – Ukraine War
- B. Continuous rise in the global temperature
- C. 9/11 attack on USA
- D. Spread of COVID-19 epidemic in the world
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Q3
mcq
1 mark
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the first two Five Year Plan ?
- A. The first Five Year Plan was drafted by K.N. Raj and the second Five Year Plan was drafted by P.C. Mahalnobis.
- B. The first Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and the second Five Year Plan focussed on industries.
- C. The first Five Year Plan emphasized on the active role of the public sector and the second Five Year Plan made huge allocations for large scale projects.
- D. The aim of first Five Year Plan was to raise the industrial production and in the second Five Year Plan, the government imposed substantial tariffs on imports in order to protect both public and private sector industries.
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Q4
mcq
1 mark
Identify the correct trio of Baltic Republics :
- A. Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
- B. Slovenia, Estonia, Lithuania
- C. Slovenia, Romania, Estonia
- D. Estonia, Romania, Latvia
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Q5
mcq
1 mark
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organization that oversees those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level.
Statement II : All the 189 members of IMF organization have equal say.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. Both statement I and statement II are true.
- B. Both statement I and statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
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Q6
mcq
1 mark
Which one of the following statements is True about the concept of ‘Co-operative Security’ ?
- A. Initiating action by the developed countries against non-traditional threats.
- B. Ensuring ‘collective security’ by the NATO countries in case of threats.
- C. Strengthening internal security by various measures within a state.
- D. Involving several countries to decide on a collective solution against non-traditional threats.
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Q7
mcq
1 mark
Which statement is the best description of ‘Veto Power’ ?
- A. It is a power of positive voting.
- B. After the end of the Second World War, Veto Power is given only to permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) to establish peace in the world.
- C. All the temporary members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) have the right to use Veto Power only for two years.
- D. All the members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) possess Veto Power.
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Q8
mcq
1 mark
Which was the last state toured by Rajiv Gandhi for his election campaign in May 1991 ?
- A. Tamil Nadu
- B. Karnataka
- C. Kerala
- D. Andhra Pradesh
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Q9
mcq
1 mark
Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Congress for democracy (i) Gujarat
(b) Garibi Hatao (ii) Jay Prakash Narayan
(c) Student movement led by Morarji Desai (iii) Jagjeevan Ram
(d) Total Revolution (iv) Indira Gandhi
Codes :
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
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Q9
mcq
1 mark
Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
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Q10
mcq
1 mark
Which one of the following is NOT a result of 'shock therapy' ?
- A. Rising value of the Russian currency in the world market.
- B. Lack of balance in the economy of the whole sector.
- C. Rise in the poverty and welfare system in the society.
- D. Breakdown of the structure of the social welfare system.
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Q10
mcq
1 mark
Which one of the following is NOT a consequence of ‘Shock Therapy’?
- A. The value of the Rouble, the Russian currency declined.
- B. The economy of the entire region was ruined.
- C. The system of social welfare got strengthened.
- D. The collective farm system disintegrated.
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Q11
mcq
1 mark
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
- A. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
- B. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
- C. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
- D. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
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Q13
short answer
2 marks
Highlight any four threats to non-traditional security.
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Q14
short answer
2 marks
Assess the impact of outside powers on the South Asian Countries.
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Q15
short answer
2 marks
How does the geographical location of the North-East region has affected the expression of its regional demands? Explain.
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Q16
short answer
2 marks
Explain any two differences between the refugees and the migrants.
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Q17
short answer
2 marks
Name any four political parties that had merged to form Janata Party in 1977.
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Q18
short answer
2 marks
Analyse the main reason responsible for the formation of Coalition Governments after 1989.
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Q19
long answer
4 marks
Explain any four differences between the governments formed in the first three General Elections held in India after independence and the coalition governments formed after the year 1989.
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Q19
long answer
4 marks
Explain any four advantages of coalition governments with reference to Indian politics.
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Q20
long answer
4 marks
Why could the reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev not save the disintegration of Soviet Union ? Explain any two reasons.
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Q21
long answer
4 marks
Describe any two areas of co-operation and any two reasons for conflicts between India and Pakistan.
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Q22
long answer
4 marks
The ideology of ‘Bharatiya Jana Sangh’ party was to make India a progressive and strong nation. Do you agree with the statement ? Support your answer with any four suitable arguments.
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Q23
short answer
4 marks
During the decade of 1960, how did the Congress Party resolve the challenge of political succession ? Explain.
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On the reform of structures and processes, the biggest discussion has been on the functioning of the Security Council. Related to this has been the demand for an increase in the UN Security Council’s permanent and non-permanent membership so that the realities of contemporary world politics are better reflected in the structure of the organisation. In particular, there are proposals to increase membership from Asia, Africa and South America. Beyond this, the US and other Western countries want improvements in the UN’s budgetary procedures and its administration.
Q24
mcq
4 marks
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :
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Q26
short answer
4 marks
Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 26 : 4 × 1 = 4 (i) State the article related to Jammu and Kashmir which was abolished in 2019. (ii) Name any one regional political party of the Jammu & Kashmir. (iii) In which year did Arunachal Pradesh become a separate state ? (iv) Name the popular leader of Mizo National Front (MNF).
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Q27
mcq
1 mark
Which organ of the United Nations has five permanent members ?
- A. General Assembly
- B. Security Council
- C. Secretariat
- D. Economic and Social Council
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Q27
long answer
6 marks
(a) Explain any four factors that led Japan to emerge as a new centre of power even after the destruction caused by Atom Bombs. 4 × 1½ = 6 OR (b) Explain any four policies adopted by China to accelerate its economic growth. 4 × 1½ = 6
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Q28
mcq
1 mark
Which country contributes the most in the budget of United Nations Organisation ?
- A. America
- B. Russia
- C. China
- D. France
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Q28
long answer
6 marks
(a) Highlight any four steps taken by the Government of India to minimize the greenhouse gas emissions. 4 × 1½ = 6 OR (b) How does geo-politics of natural resources determine the balance of power in the contemporary world ? Examine. 6
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Q29
mcq
1 mark
In which year was the strength of non-permanent members of Security Council increased ?
- A. 1962
- B. 1963
- C. 1964
- D. 1965
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Q29
long answer
6 marks
(a) Analyse any three principles of India’s foreign policy which you would like to alter in the present international scenario. 3 × 2 = 6 OR (b) “India’s nuclear policy is a blend of strategic autonomy and a commitment to global disarmament.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments. 3 × 2 = 6
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Q30
mcq
1 mark
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the reforms in Security Council ?
- A. The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
- B. The Security Council’s decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
- C. The Security Council has equal representation for all countries.
- D. The Security Council should be made more representative to ensure wider participation.
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Q30
long answer
6 marks
(a) How did Princely states posed a threat to the National Security of India ? Explain. 3 × 2 = 6 OR (b) Explain any four problems faced during the process of partition of India. 4 × 1½ = 6
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Q31
short answer
1 mark
In which year did India embark on reforms for economic growth ?
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Q32
short answer
1 mark
In which year and at what place was the first meeting of World Social Forum (WSF) organized ?
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Q33
short answer
2 marks
State any two cultural consequences of globalization.
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Q34
short answer
1 mark
The state related to the leader of Dravidian Movement E.V. Ramasami Naicker.
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Q35
short answer
1 mark
The state whose formation was supported by Master Tara Singh.
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Q36
short answer
1 mark
The state where the movement against outsiders was started by students.
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Q37
short answer
1 mark
The state for which Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga signed an agreement for peace.
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