NEET 2019 CODE-F1 — NEET 2019 Question Paper

Q1 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from :

A. PS-I to NADP
B. PS-I to ATP synthase
C. PS-II to Cytb6f complex
D. Cytb6f complex to PS-I

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Q2 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed :

A. Palindromic sequence
B. Recognition site
C. Selectable marker
D. Ori site

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Q3 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is :

A. 5' - CTTAAG - 3' 3' - GAATTC - 5'
B. 5' - GGATCC - 3' 3' - CCTAGG - 5'
C. 5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
D. 5' - GGAACC - 3' 3' - CCTTGG - 5'

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Q4 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

A. Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
B. Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
C. When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
D. When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.

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Q5 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Boveri
B. Morgan
C. Mendel
D. Sutton

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Q6 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants : (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
B. (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
C. (ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
D. (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)

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Q7 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Acetocarmine in UV radiation
B. Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
C. Acetocarmine in bright blue light
D. Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

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Q8 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. DNA ligase
D. DNA helicase

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Q8 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. DNA ligase
D. DNA helicase

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Q9 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive ?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. ICSI and ZIFT
B. GIFT and ICSI
C. ZIFT and IUT
D. GIFT and ZIFT

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Q10 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Lysine
B. Valine
C. Tyrosine
D. Glutamic Acid

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Q11 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

A. Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
B. Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
C. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
D. Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin.

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Q12 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Floridean starch has structure similar to:

A. Mannitol and algin
B. Laminarin and cellulose
C. Starch and cellulose
D. Amylopectin and glycogen

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Q13 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?

A. Cross breeding
B. Inbreeding
C. Out crossing
D. Mutational breeding

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Q14 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I: (a) Pituitary gland, (b) Thyroid gland, (c) Adrenal gland, (d) Pancreas Column II: (i) Grave’s disease, (ii) Diabetes mellitus, (iii) Diabetes insipidus, (iv) Addison’s disease

A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

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Q15 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

A. AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
B. Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
C. Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
D. Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

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Q16 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Choose the correct pair from the following:

A. Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
B. Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
C. Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
D. Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments

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Q17 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Ray florets have:

A. Hypogynous ovary
B. Half inferior ovary
C. Inferior ovary
D. Superior ovary

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Q18 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector (b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (iii) DNA polymerase (d) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins

A. (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(iv), (d)(i)
B. (a)(iii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii)
C. (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(iii), (d)(i)
D. (a)(iv), (b)(iii), (c)(i), (d)(ii)

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Q19 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:

A. Ammonia and oxygen
B. Ammonia and hydrogen
C. Ammonia alone
D. Nitrate alone

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Q20 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.

A. Ethylene
B. Abscisic acid
C. Cytokinin
D. Gibberellin

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Q21 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:

A. Nucellus
B. Chalaza
C. Hilum
D. Micropyle

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Q22 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

The process of growth is maximum during:

A. Senescence
B. Dormancy
C. Log phase
D. Lag phase

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Q23 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:

A. Aschelminthes
B. Annelida
C. Ctenophora
D. Platyhelminthes

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Q24 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Effluents of primary treatment
B. Activated sludge
C. Primary sludge
D. Floating debris

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Q25 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I: (a) Floating Ribs, (b) Acromion, (c) Scapula, (d) Glenoid cavity Column II: (i) Located between second and seventh ribs, (ii) Head of the Humerus, (iii) Clavicle, (iv) Do not connect with the sternum

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

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Q26 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. They are useful in genetic engineering.
B. Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
C. Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
D. They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.

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Q27 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry (c) Book lungs (d) Bioluminescence Column - II (i) Asterias (ii) Scorpion (iii) Ctenoplana (iv) Locusta

A. (1)(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
B. (2)(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
C. (3)(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
D. (4)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)

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Q28 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because:

A. the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
B. the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
C. the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
D. the cockroach does not have nervous system.

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Q29 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?

A. Himalayas
B. Amazon forests
C. Western Ghats of India
D. Madagascar

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Q30 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

A. Golgi bodies
B. Polysomes
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Peroxisomes

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Q31 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

A. Anabaena and Volvox
B. Chlorella and Spirulina
C. Laminaria and Sargassum
D. Gelidium and Gracilaria

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Q32 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?

A. Lectin
B. Insulin
C. Haemoglobin
D. Collagen

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Q33 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:

A. Diplotene
B. Leptotene
C. Pachytene
D. Zygotene

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Q34 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

A. 14
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2

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Q35 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:

A. proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
B. eustachian tube
C. lining of intestine
D. ducts of salivary glands

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Q36 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Match the following with respect to meiosis: (a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis

A. (1)(i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
B. (2)(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
C. (3)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
D. (4)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)

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Q37 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

A. They lie free in the cytoplasm.
B. These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
C. They are not bound by any membrane.
D. These are involved in ingestion of food particles.

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Q38 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

A. Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
B. Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
C. More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
D. Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone

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Q39 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features: (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath. (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. (d) Phloem parenchyma absent. Identify the category of plant and its part:

A. Dicotyledonous stem
B. Dicotyledonous root
C. Monocotyledonous stem
D. Monocotyledonous root

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Q39 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

In a plant anatomy slide, the vascular bundles are conjoint and closed, and phloem parenchyma is absent. Identify the category of plant and its part:

A. Dicotyledonous stem
B. Dicotyledonous root
C. Monocotyledonous stem
D. Monocotyledonous root

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Q40 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which of the following statements is correct?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (5 sets)

A. Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
B. Adenine does not pair with thymine.
C. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
D. Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.

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Q40 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which of the following statements is correct?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (5 sets)

A. Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
B. Adenine does not pair with thymine.
C. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
D. Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.

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Q41 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I (a) Bt cotton (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (c) RNAi (d) PCR Column - II (i) Gene therapy (ii) Cellular defence (iii) Detection of HIV infection (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. (1)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
B. (2)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
C. (3)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
D. (4)(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)

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Q42 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Industrial melanism
B. Natural selection
C. Adaptive radiation
D. Convergent evolution

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Q43 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 1 molecule of 6-C compound
B. 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
C. 2 molecules of 3-C compound
D. 1 molecule of 3-C compound

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Q44 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:

A. Female gametocytes
B. Male gametocytes
C. Trophozoites
D. Sporozoites

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Q45 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Identify the incorrect statement.

A. Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.
B. Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.
C. Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
D. Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.

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Q46 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which of the following is correct about viroids?

A. They have DNA with protein coat.
B. They have free DNA without protein coat.
C. They have RNA with protein coat.
D. They have free RNA without protein coat.

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Q47 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option: Column I (a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis (d) Malaria; Column II (i) Wuchereria (ii) Plasmodium (iii) Salmonella (iv) Haemophilus

A. (1)(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
B. (2)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
C. (3)(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
D. (4)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

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Q48 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.

A. When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.
B. Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
C. The gene (I) has three alleles.
D. A person will have only two of the three alleles.

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Q49 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about:

A. 50 million
B. 7 million
C. 1.5 million
D. 20 million

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Q50 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?

A. Mortality
B. Species interaction
C. Sex ratio
D. Natality

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Q51 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:

A. wind and water
B. insects and water
C. insects or wind
D. water currents only

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Q52 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

A. Depolarisation of ventricles
B. Repolarisation of ventricles
C. Repolarisation of auricles
D. Depolarisation of auricles

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Q53 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Select the correct match.

A. Sickle cell anaemia -Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
B. Thalassemia -X linked
C. Haemophilia -Y linked
D. Phenylketonuria -Autosomal dominant trait

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Q54 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is:

A. Two
B. Three
C. Zero
D. One

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Q55 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Match the following: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (b) Possess peptide bonds (c) Cell wall material in fungi (d) Secondary metabolite. Choose the correct option from the following: (i) Ricin (ii) Malonate (iii) Chitin (iv) Collagen

A. (1)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
B. (2)(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
C. (3)(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
D. (4)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)

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Q56 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?

A. (b), (c) and (d)
B. only (d)
C. only (a)
D. (a) and (c)

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Q57 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter a vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. S phase
B. G2 phase
C. M phase
D. G1 phase

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Q58 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Defence action
B. Effect on reproduction
C. Nutritive value
D. Growth response

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Q59 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. After zygote formation
B. At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
C. Prior to ovulation
D. At the time of copulation

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Q60 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which of the following statements is not correct?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
B. Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E-Coli.
C. In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.
D. The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.

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Q61 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :

A. High reflection of light from snow
B. Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
C. Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
D. Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation

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Q62 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Strobili or cones are found in :

A. Marchantia
B. Equisetum
C. Salvinia
D. Pteris

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Q63 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :

A. CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
B. CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
C. CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C
D. CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C

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Q64 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same.
B. There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.
C. Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.
D. Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.

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Q65 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem. (a)Fourth trophic level (i)Crow (b)Second trophic level (ii)Vulture (c)First trophic level (iii)Rabbit (d)Third trophic level (iv)Grass Select the correct option :

A. (1)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
B. (2)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
C. (3)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
D. (4)(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)

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Q66 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Select the correct statement.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (2 sets)

A. Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
B. Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
C. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
D. Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

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Q67 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. (a)Contraction of diaphragm (b)Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (c)Pulmonary volume decreases (d)Intra pulmonary pressure increases

A. (a), (b) and (d)
B. only (d)
C. (a) and (b)
D. (c) and (d)

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Q68 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

The roots that originate from the base of the stem are :

A. Prop roots
B. Lateral roots
C. Fibrous roots
D. Primary roots

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Q69 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from :

A. Chondrocytes
B. Compound epithelial cells
C. Squamous epithelial cells
D. Columnar epithelial cells

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Q70 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of :

A. Release of Green House gases
B. Disposal of e-wastes
C. Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
D. Emission of ozone depleting substances

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Q71 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata ? (a)In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life. (b)In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only. (c)Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. (d)Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

A. (a) and (b)
B. (b) and (c)
C. (d) and (c)
D. (c) and (a)

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Cellulose, lecithin
B. Inulin, insulin
C. Chitin, cholesterol
D. Glycerol, trypsin

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Q73 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a)Placenta | (i)Androgens (b)Zona pellucida | (ii)Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) (c)Bulbo-urethral glands | (iii)Layer of the ovum (d)Leydig cells | (iv)Lubrication of the Penis

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. (1)(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
B. (2)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
C. (3)(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
D. (4)(i)(iv)(ii)(iii)

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Q74 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6×10^9 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 2.2 meters
B. 2.7 meters
C. 2.0 meters
D. 2.5 meters

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Q75 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

The ovary is half inferior in :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Sunflower
B. Plum
C. Brinjal
D. Mustard

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Q76 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

A. Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
B. Nuclear Division takes place.
C. DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
D. Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.

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Q77 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle ?

A. Low concentration of LH
B. Low concentration of FSH
C. High concentration of Estrogen
D. High concentration of Progesterone

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Q78 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

A. Ileum is a highly coiled part.
B. Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
C. Ileum opens into small intestine.
D. Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.

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Q79 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Eosinophils | (i) Immune response (b) Basophils | (ii) Phagocytosis (c) Neutrophils | (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (d) Lymphocytes | (iv) Release granules containing histamine

A. (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
B. (ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
C. (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
D. (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)

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Q80 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other :

A. (c) and (d)
B. (a) and (d)
C. (a) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)

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Q81 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to :

A. Plant nematodes
B. Insect predators
C. Insect pests
D. Fungal diseases

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Q82 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

The first phase of translation is :

A. Aminoacylation of tRNA
B. Recognition of an anti-codon
C. Binding of mRNA to ribosome
D. Recognition of DNA molecule

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Q83 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by :

A. Charles Darwin
B. Oparin
C. Karl Ernst von Baer
D. Alfred Wallace

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Q84 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

A. (iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
B. (i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
C. (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
D. (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

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Q85 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Clostridium butylicum | (i) Cyclosporin-A (b) Trichoderma polysporum | (ii) Butyric Acid (c) Monascus purpureus | (iii) Citric Acid (d) Aspergillus niger | (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

A. (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
B. (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
C. (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
D. (ii)(i)(iv)(iii)

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Q86 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy ?

A. Phenolic acid
B. Para-ascorbic acid
C. Gibberellic acid
D. Abscisic acid

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Q87 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Organ of Corti | (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx (b) Cochlea | (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth (c) Eustachian tube | (iii) Attached to the oval window (d) Stapes | (iv) Located on the basilar membrane

A. (iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
B. (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
C. (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
D. (iii)(i)(iv)(ii)

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Q87 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I: (a) Organ of Corti, (b) Cochlea, (c) Eustachian tube, (d) Stapes Column II: (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx, (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth, (iii) Attached to the oval window, (iv) Located on the basilar membrane

A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

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Q88 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :

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A. caseinogen into casein
B. pepsinogen into pepsin
C. protein into polypeptides
D. trypsinogen into trypsin

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Q89 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?

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A. Ketonuria and Glycosuria
B. Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
C. Uremia and Ketonuria
D. Uremia and Renal Calculi

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Q90 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is :

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A. Imbibition
B. Plasmolysis
C. Transpiration
D. Root pressure

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Q91 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16 x 10^-9 C m. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of 60 degrees with the dipole axis is (Given: 1/(4πε₀) = 9 x 10^9 N m²/C²):

A. 400 V
B. zero
C. 50 V
D. 200 V

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Q92 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is π/3. If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3 between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :

A. 1.0
B. -1.0
C. zero
D. 0.5

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Q93 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?

A. one-fourth
B. zero
C. doubled
D. four times

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Q94 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

Dimensions of stress are :

A. [ M L^0 T^-2 ]
B. [ M L^-1 T^-2 ]
C. [ M L T^-2 ]
D. [ M L^2 T^-2 ]

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Q95 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 x 10^-2 nm, the potential difference is :

A. 10^3 V
B. 10^4 V
C. 10 V
D. 10^2 V

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Q96 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF. The permittivity of the medium is (ε₀ = 8.85 x 10^-12 C² N^-1 m^-2):

A. 0.44 x 10^-10 C² N^-1 m^-2
B. 5.00 C² N^-1 m^-2
C. 0.44 x 10^-13 C² N^-1 m^-2
D. 1.77 x 10^-12 C² N^-1 m^-2

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Q97 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are :

A. semiconductors only
B. insulators and semiconductors
C. metals
D. insulators only

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Q98 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.
B. The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
C. Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.
D. Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.

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Q99 PHYSICS Unit 20: Experimental Skills

A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is :

A. 0.5 mm
B. 1.0 mm
C. 0.01 mm
D. 0.25 mm

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Q100 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is :

A. π/2 rad
B. zero
C. π rad
D. 3π/2 rad

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Q101 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is (µ₀ = 4π x 10^-7 T m A^-1):

A. 6.28 x 10^-5 T
B. 3.14 x 10^-5 T
C. 6.28 x 10^-4 T
D. 3.14 x 10^-4 T

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Q102 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s²)

A. 320 m
B. 300 m
C. 360 m
D. 340 m

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Q103 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

The color code of a resistance is given below: (Yellow, Violet, Red, Gold). The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 4.7 kΩ, 5%
B. 470 Ω, 5%
C. 470 kΩ, 5%
D. 47 kΩ, 10%

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Q104 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

The Brewsters angle i_b for an interface should be :

A. 45° < i_b < 90°
B. i_b = 90°
C. 0° < i_b < 30°
D. 30° < i_b < 45°

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Q105 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to :

A. µA
B. A / (2µ)
C. A / (2µ)
D. 2A / µ

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Q106 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. isochoric
B. isobaric
C. isothermal
D. adiabatic

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Q107 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?

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A. Deuteron atom
B. Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
C. Hydrogen atom
D. Singly ionised helium atom (He+)

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Q108 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless. The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is:

A. g/5
B. g/10
C. g
D. g/2

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Q109 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is:

A. 1 N/C
B. 5 N/C
C. zero
D. 0.5 N/C

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Q110 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

When a uranium isotope 235/92 U is bombarded with a neutron, it generates 89/36 Kr, three neutrons and:

A. 110/36 Kr
B. 103/36 Kr
C. 144/56 Ba
D. 91/40 Zr

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Q111 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is:

A. 1.5×10^13 J
B. 0.5×10^13 J
C. 4.5×10^16 J
D. 4.5×10^13 J

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Q112 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases

The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed as:

A. 1 / (sqrt(2) * n * pi * d^2)
B. 1 / (sqrt(2) * n * pi * d^2)
C. 1 / (n * pi * d^2)
D. 1 / (2 * n * pi * d^2)

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Q113 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is:

A. MgL / AL1
B. MgL / A(L1 - L)
C. MgL / AL
D. Mg(L1 - L) / AL

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Q115 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10^-20 J. This value in eV is nearly:

A. 0.06
B. 0.006
C. 6
D. 0.6

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Q116 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

A. 30 N
B. 24 N
C. 48 N
D. 32 N

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Q118 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes:

A. four times
B. one-fourth
C. double
D. half

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Q119 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is:

A. 10.0 g
B. 20.0 g
C. 2.5 g
D. 5.0 g

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Q120 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases

A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27C. Its density is: (R=8.3 J mol^-1 K^-1)

A. 0.1 kg/m^3
B. 0.02 kg/m^3
C. 0.5 kg/m^3
D. 0.2 kg/m^3

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Q121 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 A m^-1. The permeability of the material of the rod is: (µ0 = 4π×10^-7 T m A^-1)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 2.4π×10^-5 T m A^-1
B. 2.4π×10^-7 T m A^-1
C. 2.4π×10^-4 T m A^-1
D. 8.0×10^-5 T m A^-1

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Q122 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion

Find the torque about the origin when a force of 3N j-hat acts on a particle whose position vector is 2m k-hat.

A. -6 N m i-hat
B. 6 N m k-hat
C. 6 N m i-hat
D. 6 N m j-hat

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Q123 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases

The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is: (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)

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A. 5/2 kB T
B. 7/2 kB T
C. 1/2 kB T
D. 3/2 kB T

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Q124 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 7.32×10^-7 rad
B. 6.00×10^-7 rad
C. 3.66×10^-7 rad
D. 1.83×10^-7 rad

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Q125 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is:

A. 24×10^3 J
B. 48×10^3 J
C. 10×10^3 J
D. 12×10^3 J

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Q125 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves

Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm^2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm^2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is:

A. 24 × 10^3 J
B. 48 × 10^3 J
C. 10 × 10^3 J
D. 12 × 10^3 J

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Q126 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is: (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)

A. 1 : c
B. 1 : c^2
C. c : 1
D. 1 : 1

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Q129 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is:

A. 1.5 × 10^-1 m
B. 1.5 × 10^-2 m
C. 1.0 × 10^-2 m
D. 1.0 × 10^-1 m

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Q130 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to:

A. both forward bias and reverse bias
B. increase in forward current
C. forward bias only
D. reverse bias only

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Q131 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly:

A. 2.5 A
B. 25.1 A
C. 1.7 A
D. 2.05 A

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Q132 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m - 0.0099 m?

A. 9.980 m
B. 9.9 m
C. 9.9801 m
D. 9.98 m

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Q133 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 10^-4 m s^-1 in an electric field of 3 × 10^-10 Vm^-1, has a mobility in m^2 V^-1 s^-1 of:

A. 2.5 × 10^-6
B. 2.25 × 10^-15
C. 2.25 × 10^15
D. 2.5 × 10^6

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Q134 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:

A. 536 Hz
B. 537 Hz
C. 523 Hz
D. 524 Hz

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Q135 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of:

A. 67 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 33 cm
D. 50 cm

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Q136 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as:

A. Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
B. Cross Aldol condensation
C. Aldol condensation
D. Cannizzaro’s reaction

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Q137 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?

A. Stability of the colloidal particles
B. Size of the colloidal particles
C. Viscosity
D. Solubility

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Q138 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?

A. -R effect of -CH3 groups
B. Hyperconjugation
C. -I effect of -CH3 groups
D. 1R effect of -CH3 groups

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Q139 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:

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A. q < 0, ΔT=0 and w=0
B. q > 0, ΔT > 0 and w > 0
C. q=0, ΔT=0 and w=0
D. q=0, ΔT < 0 and w > 0

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Q140 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Match the following: Oxide Nature (a)CO (i)Basic (b)BaO (ii)Neutral (c)Al2O3 (iii)Acidic (d)Cl2O7 (iv)Amphoteric

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
B. (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
C. (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
D. (ii)(i)(iv)(iii)

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Q141 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:

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A. Tert. butyl alcohol
B. Isobutyl alcohol
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Sec. butyl alcohol

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Q142 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Iron
D. Copper

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Iron
D. Copper

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Q143 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

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A. Tyrosine
B. Lysine
C. Serine
D. Alanine

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Q146 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

A. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
B. Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
C. Sodium lauryl sulphate
D. Sodium stearate

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Q147 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms?

A. 1 g of O2 (g)
B. 1 g of Li(s)
C. 1 g of Ag(s)
D. 1 g of Mg(s)

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Q148 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Identify the incorrect match. Name IUPAC Official Name (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium (b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium (d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium

A. (c), (iii)
B. (d), (iv)
C. (a), (i)
D. (b), (ii)

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Q150 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds

Paper chromatography is an example of :

A. Thin layer chromatography
B. Column chromatography
C. Adsorption chromatography
D. Partition chromatography

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Q151 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is :

A. 15 bar
B. 18 bar
C. 9 bar
D. 12 bar

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Q152 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure

The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 175 71 Lu, respectively, are :

A. 71, 71 and 104
B. 175, 104 and 71
C. 71, 104 and 71
D. 104, 71 and 71

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Q153 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :

A. 500 s
B. 1000 s
C. 100 s
D. 200 s

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Q154 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Identify a molecule which does not exist.

A. C2
B. O2
C. He2
D. Li2

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Q156 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct option is :

A. ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0
B. ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
C. ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
D. ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0

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Q157 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2×10−15.

A. 1×10−13 M
B. 1×108 M
C. 2×10−13 M
D. 2×10−8 M

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Q158 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be :

A. H2S gas
B. SO2 gas
C. Hydrogen gas
D. Oxygen gas

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Q159 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. The carboxyhaemoglobin is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
B. It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
C. It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
D. It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.

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Q160 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2

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Q161 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is:

A. (b), (c), (d)
B. (a), (b), (d)
C. (a), (b), (c)
D. (a), (c), (d)

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Q162 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction? CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)

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A. -4 to 14
B. 0 to -4
C. 14 to 14
D. 0 to 14

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Q163 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

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A. n-Heptane
B. n-Butane
C. n-Hexane
D. 2,3-Dimethylbutane

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Q164 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :

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A. α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
B. α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
C. β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
D. α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose

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Q165 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

Identify the incorrect statement.

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A. Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
B. The oxidation states of chromium in CrO4^2- and Cr2O7^2- are not the same.
C. Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ (d6) in water.
D. The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.

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Q166 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?

A. Only MgCl2
B. NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
C. Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
D. Only NaCl

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Q167 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Identify the correct statements from the following: (a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food. (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings. (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline. (d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.

A. (b) and (c) only
B. (c) and (d) only
C. (a), (b) and (c) only
D. (a) and (c) only

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Q168 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in:

A. threshold energy
B. collision frequency
C. activation energy
D. heat of reaction

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Q169 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is:

A. 5.92 BM
B. 2.84 BM
C. 3.87 BM
D. 4.90 BM

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Q170 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the following and identify the correct option.

A. (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
B. (i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
C. (iii)(i)(ii)(iv)
D. (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)

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Q171 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is:

A. Acetone + Chloroform
B. Chloroethane + Bromoethane
C. Ethanol + Acetone
D. Benzene + Toluene

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Q174 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol^-1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places):

A. 0.40 K
B. 0.60 K
C. 0.20 K
D. 0.80 K

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Q175 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has -O-O- linkage?

A. H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
B. H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
C. H2SO3, sulphurous acid
D. H2SO4, sulphuric acid

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Q176 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

Identify the correct statement from the following:

A. Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
B. Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
C. Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
D. Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.

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Q176 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

Identify the correct statement from the following:

A. Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
B. Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
C. Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
D. Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.

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Q177 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Which of the following is a natural polymer?

A. polybutadiene
B. poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
C. cis-1,4-polyisoprene
D. poly (Butadiene-styrene)

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Q177 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

Which of the following is a natural polymer?

A. polybutadiene
B. poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
C. cis-1,4-polyisoprene
D. poly (Butadiene-styrene)

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Q178 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is:

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A. (sqrt(3)/4) * 288 pm
B. (sqrt(2)/4) * 288 pm
C. (sqrt(3)/4) * 288 pm
D. (sqrt(2)/4) * 288 pm

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Q180 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?

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A. Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
B. Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
C. Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
D. Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

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