NEET 2019 CODE-H1 — NEET 2019 Question Paper

Q1 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

Following limiting molar conductivities are given as λ°(HSO4−) = x S cm2 mol−1, λ°(K2SO4) = y S cm2 mol−1 and λ°(CH3COOK) = z S cm2 mol−1. The limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH in S cm2 mol−1 will be

A. (x − y + z) / 2
B. x − y + 2z
C. x + y + z
D. x − y + z

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Q2 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

A first order reaction has a rate constant of 2.303 × 10−3 s−1. The time required for 40 g of this reactant to reduce to 10 g will be [Given that log10 2 = 0.3010]

A. 602 s
B. 230.3 s
C. 301 s
D. 2000 s

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Q3 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

For a reaction, activation energy Ea = 0 and the rate constant at 200 K is 1.6 × 106 s−1. The rate constant at 400 K will be [Given that gas constant, R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1]

A. 3.2 × 106 s−1
B. 3.2 × 104 s−1
C. 1.6 × 106 s−1
D. 1.6 × 103 s−1

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Q4 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

The correct option representing a Freundlich adsorption isotherm is

A. x/m = kp−1
B. x/m = kp0.3
C. x/m = kp2.5
D. x/m = kp−0.5

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Q5 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Which of the following is paramagnetic?

A. O2
B. N2
C. H2
D. Li2

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Q6 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Which of the following is the correct order of dipole moment?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. H2O < NF3 < NH3 < BF3
B. NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H2O
C. BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
D. BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O

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Q7 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Crude sodium chloride obtained by crystallisation of brine solution does not contain

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. CaSO4
B. MgSO4
C. Na2SO4
D. MgCl2

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Q8 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Which of the alkali metal chlorides (MCl) forms its dihydrate salt (MCl·2H2O) easily?

A. KCl
B. LiCl
C. CsCl
D. RbCl

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Q9 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is

A. C6H5CH2OH + KMnO4/H+
B. C6H5CH2OH + K2Cr2O7
C. C6H5COCH3 → (i) NaOCl (ii) H3O+
D. C6H5CH2OH + PCC

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Q10 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

The amine that reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give an alkali insoluble product is

A. CH3–C(CH3)2–CH2–NH2
B. CH3–CH(CH3)–NH–CH(CH3)–CH3
C. CH3–CH2–N(CH3)–CH2CH3
D. CH3–C(CH3)2–CH2–NH2

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Q11 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Which structure(s) of proteins remain(s) intact during denaturation process?

A. Tertiary structure only
B. Both secondary and tertiary structures
C. Primary structure only
D. Secondary structure only

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Q12 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

The polymer that is used as a substitute for wool in making commercial fibres is

A. Buna-N
B. Melamine
C. Nylon-6,6
D. Polyacrylonitrile

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Q13 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

The artificial sweetener stable at cooking temperature and does not provide calories is

A. Alitame
B. Saccharin
C. Aspartame
D. Sucralose

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Q14 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

The density of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is 1.28 g/cm3. The molality of the solution is [Given that molecular mass of NaOH = 40 g mol−1]

A. 1.32 m
B. 1.20 m
C. 1.56 m
D. 1.67 m

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Q15 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure

Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total nodes is

A. 6d
B. 5p
C. 3d
D. 4f

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Q16 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure

In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the second Bohr orbit is [Given that Bohr radius, a0 = 52.9 pm]

A. 105.8 pm
B. 211.6 pm
C. 211.6π pm
D. 52.9π pm

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Q17 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

The volume occupied by 1.8 g of water vapour at 374°C and 1 bar pressure will be [Use R = 0.083 bar L K^-1 mol^-1].

A. 5.37 L
B. 96.66 L
C. 55.87 L
D. 3.10 L

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

The volume occupied by 1.8 g of water vapour at 374°C and 1 bar pressure will be [Use R = 0.083 bar L K−1 mol−1]

A. 5.37 L
B. 96.66 L
C. 55.87 L
D. 3.10 L

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Q18 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

An ideal gas expands isothermally from 10^-3 m^3 to 10^-2 m^3 at 300 K against a constant pressure of 10^5 N m^-2. The work done on the gas is

A. -900 kJ
B. +270 kJ
C. -900 J
D. +900 kJ

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

An ideal gas expands isothermally from 10−3 m3 to 10−2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure of 105 N m−2. The work done on the gas is

A. −900 kJ
B. +270 kJ
C. −900 J
D. +900 kJ

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Q19 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as shown in the figure. AB → Isothermal expansion; AC → Adiabatic expansion. Which of the following options is not correct?

A. T_C > T_A
B. ΔS_isothermal > ΔS_adiabatic
C. T_A = T_B
D. w_isothermal > w_adiabatic

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Q19 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as shown in the figure. AB → Isothermal expansion AC → Adiabatic expansion. Which of the following options is not correct?

A. TC > TA
B. ΔS isothermal > ΔS adiabatic
C. TA = TB
D. wisothermal > wadia batic

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Q20 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Match the oxide given in Column A with its property given in Column B. Column A: (i) Na2O, (ii) Al2O3, (iii) N2O, (iv) Cl2O7 Column B: (a) Neutral, (b) Basic, (c) Acidic, (d) Amphoteric Which of the following options has all correct pairs?

A. (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
B. (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
C. (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
D. (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)

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Q21 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Match the catalyst with the process. Catalyst: (i) V2O5, (ii) TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3, (iii) PdCl2, (iv) Nickel complexes Process: (a) Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal, (b) Polymerisation of alkynes, (c) Oxidation of SO2 in the manufacture of H2SO4, (d) Polymerisation of ethylene Which of the following is the correct option?

A. (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
B. (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
C. (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
D. (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)

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Q22 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

The most stable carbocation, among the following, is

A. CH3–CH2–CH2+
B. (CH3)2CH–CH2+
C. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2+
D. (CH3)2CH–CH+–CH3

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Q23 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

The alkane that gives only one mono-chloro product on chlorination with Cl2 in presence of diffused sunlight is

A. Isopentane
B. 2,2-Dimethylbutane
C. Neopentane
D. n-Pentane

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Q24 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

In the following reaction, HC≡C–CH3 → A (red hot iron tube, 873 K), the number of sigma (σ) bonds present in the product A is

A. 18
B. 21
C. 9
D. 24

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Q25 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms a complex 'A', in which hybridisation state of Al is 'B'. What are 'A' and 'B', respectively?

A. [Al(H2O)6]3+, sp3d
B. [Al(H2O)6]3+, sp3d2
C. [Al(H2O)4]3+, sp3
D. [Al(H2O)4]3+, dsp2

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Q26 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

Which of the following compounds is used in cosmetic surgery?

A. Zeolites
B. Silica
C. Silicates
D. Silicones

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Q26 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

Which of the following compounds is used in cosmetic surgery?

A. Zeolites
B. Silica
C. Silicates
D. Silicones

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Q27 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

Identify the incorrect statement.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (2 sets)

A. Gangue is an ore contaminated with undesired materials
B. The scientific and technological process used for isolation of the metal from its ore is known as metallurgy
C. Minerals are naturally occurring chemical substances in the earth's crust
D. Ores are minerals that may contain a metal

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Q28 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

A compound X upon reaction with H2O produces a colourless gas Y with rotten fish smell. Gas Y is absorbed in a solution of CuSO4 to give Cu3P2 as one of the products. Predict the compound X.

A. Ca3(PO4)2
B. Ca3P2
C. NH4Cl
D. As2O3

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Q28 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

A compound X upon reaction with H2O produces a colorless gas Y with rotten fish smell. Gas Y is absorbed in a solution of CuSO4 to give Cu3P2 as one of the products. Predict the compound X.

A. Ca3(PO4)2
B. Ca3P2
C. NH4Cl
D. As2O3

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Q29 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus has strongest reducing property?

A. H3PO4
B. H4P2O7
C. H3PO3
D. H3PO2

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Q30 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

Identify the correct formula of oleum from the following.

A. H2S2O8
B. H2S2O7
C. H2SO3
D. H2SO4

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Q31 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

When neutral or faintly alkaline KMnO4 is treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is converted into X. X is

A. IO−
B. I2
C. IO4−
D. IO3−

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Q32 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

The Crystal Field Stabilisation Energy (CFSE) for [CoCl6]4− is 18000 cm−1. The CFSE for [CoCl4]2− will be

A. 8000 cm−1
B. 6000 cm−1
C. 16000 cm−1
D. 18000 cm−1

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Q33 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

The liquified gas that is used in dry cleaning along with a suitable detergent is

A. CO2
B. Water gas
C. Petroleum gas
D. NO2

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Q34 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens

The hydrolysis reaction that takes place at the slowest rate, among the following is

A. CH2Cl2 + aq. NaOH → CH2OHCl
B. CH3Cl + aq. NaOH → CH3ONa
C. CH3CH2Cl + aq. NaOH → CH3CH2OH
D. CH2=CHCH2Cl + aq. NaOH → CH2=CHCH2OH

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Q35 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

When vapours of a secondary alcohol is passed over heated copper at 573 K, the product formed is

A. an alkene
B. a carboxylic acid
C. an aldehyde
D. a ketone

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Q36 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

The major products C and D formed in the following reaction respectively are: (CH3CH2CH2–O–C(CH3)3) + excess HI, Δ → C and D

A. CH3CH2CH2OH and HO–C(CH3)3
B. CH3CH2CH2I and I–C(CH3)3
C. CH3CH2CH2OH and I–C(CH3)3
D. CH3CH2CH2I and HO–C(CH3)3

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Q37 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

The pH of 0.01 M NaOH (aq) solution will be

A. 9
B. 7.01
C. 2
D. 12

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Q38 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

Which of the following cannot act both as Bronsted acid and as Bronsted base?

A. HSO4−
B. HCO3−
C. NH3
D. HCl

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Q39 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

The molar solubility of CaF2 (Ksp = 5.3 × 10−11) in 0.1 M solution of NaF will be

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 5.3 × 10−10 mol L−1
B. 5.3 × 10−11 mol L−1
C. 5.3 × 10−8 mol L−1
D. 5.3 × 10−9 mol L−1

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Q40 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

The oxidation state of Cr in CrO6 is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. +4
B. −6
C. +12
D. +6

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Q41 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) associated with CuSO4·5H2O is

A. 5
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2

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Q41 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

The number of hydrogen-bonded water molecule(s) associated with CuSO4·5H2O is

A. 5
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2

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Q42 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency defect in its crystal is Ni0.98O. The crystal contains Ni2+ and Ni3+ ions. The fraction of nickel existing as Ni2+ ions in the crystal is

A. 0.31
B. 0.96
C. 0.04
D. 0.50

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Q43 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two components A and B exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour?

A. Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B.
B. Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B.
C. ΔmixH = 0 at constant T and P.
D. ΔmixV = 0 at constant T and P.

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Q44 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

In water-saturated air, the mole fraction of water vapour is 0.02. If the total pressure of the saturated air is 1.2 atm, the partial pressure of dry air is

A. 0.98 atm
B. 1.18 atm
C. 1.76 atm
D. 1.176 atm

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Q45 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

The standard electrode potentials E° values of Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K and Cr3+/Cr are −1.66 V, 0.80 V, −2.93 V and −0.74 V, respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of the metals is

A. Al > K > Ag > Cr
B. Ag > Cr > Al > K
C. K > Al > Cr > Ag
D. K > Al > Ag > Cr

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Q46 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

A selectable marker is used to:

A. Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme
B. Help in eliminating the non-transformants, so that the transformants can be regenerated
C. Identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
D. Select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop

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Q47 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species?

A. Keystone
B. Endemic
C. Vulnerable
D. Threatened

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Q48 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which of the following statements about ozone is correct?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Stratospheric ozone protects us from UV radiations
B. Tropospheric ozone protects us from UV radiations
C. Stratospheric ozone is ‘bad’
D. Tropospheric ozone is ‘good’

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Q49 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Bioprospecting
B. Biopiracy
C. Bioenergetics
D. Bioremediation

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Q50 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which of the following is an innovative remedy for plastic waste?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Electrostatic precipitator
B. Burning in the absence of oxygen
C. Burying 500 m deep below soil surface
D. Polyblend

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Q51 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Between which among the following, the relationship is not an example of commensalism?

A. Female wasp and fig species
B. Orchid and the tree on which it grows
C. Cattle egret and grazing cattle
D. Sea anemone and clown fish

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Q52 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

If an agricultural field is liberally irrigated for a prolonged period of time, it is likely to face a problem of:

A. Salinity
B. Metal toxicity
C. Alkalinity
D. Acidity

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Q54 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were brought about by:

A. Hybridization and selection
B. Mutation breeding
C. Biofortification
D. Tissue culture

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Q55 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:

A. Datura
B. Papaver somniferum
C. Atropa belladonna
D. Erythroxylum coca

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Q56 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Among the following pairs of microbes, which pair has both the microbes that can be used as biofertilizers?

A. Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria
B. Aspergillus and Rhizopus
C. Rhizobium and Rhizopus
D. Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium

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Q57 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements. (a) DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal. (b) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA. (c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the distance it travels through it. (d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing to UV radiation. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (a), (b) and (d)
B. (a), (c) and (d)
C. (a), (b) and (c)
D. (b), (c) and (d)

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Q58 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from ends of DNA is:

A. Protease
B. DNA ligase
C. Endonuclease
D. Exonuclease

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Q59 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:

A. ds-DNA
B. ds-RNA
C. ss-DNA
D. ss-RNA

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Q59 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:

A. ds-DNA
B. ds-RNA
C. ss-DNA
D. ss-RNA

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Q60 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?

A. Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
B. Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions
C. Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions
D. Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

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Q61 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of genetic code:

A. Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non-ambiguous
B. Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
C. Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
D. Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate

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Q62 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage?

A. Jacob and Monod
B. Beadle and Tatum
C. Mendelson and Stahl
D. Hershey and Chase

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Q63 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes:

A. Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
B. mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing
C. tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNAs
D. rRNAs – 28S, 18S and 5.8S

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Q64 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

In which genetic condition does each cell in the affected person have three sex chromosomes XXY?

A. Turner's syndrome
B. Thalassemia
C. Klinefelter's syndrome
D. Phenylketonuria

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Q65 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in eukaryotes?

A. alpha and sigma, respectively
B. sigma and rho, respectively
C. alpha and beta, respectively
D. beta and gamma, respectively

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Q66 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of man?

A. Neanderthal men lived in Asia between 1,00,000 and 40,000 years back.
B. Agriculture came around 50,000 years back.
C. The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates existing 15 million years ago walked like men.
D. Homo habilis probably ate meat.

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Q67 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood using

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Wen diagram
B. Pie diagram
C. A pyramid diagram
D. Punnett square

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Q68 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2 acceptor is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Rubisco
B. Oxaloacetic acid
C. Phosphoglyceric acid
D. Phosphoenol pyruvate

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Q69 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea leaves. This is because:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.
B. Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated.

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Q70 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting light through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of:

A. Blue and red light
B. Violet and green light
C. Indigo and green light
D. Orange and yellow light

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Q71 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crop, which of the following plant growth regulators should be sprayed?

A. Cytokinins
B. Ethylene
C. Auxins
D. Gibberellins

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Q72 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?

A. Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers at the surface of water.
B. Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water.
C. Flowers emerge above the surface of water and pollination occurs by insects.
D. Flowers emerge above water surface and pollen is carried by wind.

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Q73 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?

A. Maize
B. Wheat
C. Papaya
D. Castor

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Q74 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Match the placental types (column I) with their examples (column II). Column I: (a) Basal, (b) Axile, (c) Parietal, (d) Free central Column II: (i) Mustard, (ii) China rose, (iii) Dianthus, (iv) Sunflower Choose the correct answer from the following options:

A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
C. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

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Q75 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Match the column I with column II. Column I: (a) Golgi apparatus, (b) Lysosomes, (c) Vacuoles, (d) Ribosomes Column II: (i) Synthesis of protein, (ii) Trap waste and excretory products, (iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids, (iv) Digesting biomolecules Choose the right match from options given below:

A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

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Q76 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that-

A. They can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-catalyzed reactions
B. They require metal ions for their activity
C. They are tightly bound to apoenzymes
D. Their association with apoenzymes is transient

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Q76 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that—

A. They can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-catalyzed reactions
B. They require metal ions for their activity
C. They are tightly bound to apoenzymes
D. Their association with apoenzymes is transient

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Q77 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle?

A. Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at pachytene stage of prophase I
B. Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at zygotene stage of prophase I
C. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at pachytene stage of prophase I
D. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at zygotene stage of prophase I

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Q78 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

"Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the structure of

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Proteins
D. Triacylglycerides

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Q79 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which of the following is not a feature of active transport of solutes in plants?

A. Requires ATP
B. Occurs against concentration gradient
C. Non-selective
D. Occurs through membranes

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Q80 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which of the following bacteria reduce nitrate in soil into nitrogen?

A. Nitrosomonas
B. Nitrobacter
C. Nitrococcus
D. Thiobacillus

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Q81 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

What will be the direction of flow of water when a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?

A. No flow of water in any direction
B. Water will flow in both directions
C. Water will flow out of the cell
D. Water will flow into the cell

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Q82 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Where is the respiratory electron transport system (ETS) located in plants?

A. Intermembrane space
B. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Outer mitochondrial membrane
D. Inner mitochondrial membrane

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Q83 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?

A. Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.
B. Hand written scientific names should be underlined.
C. Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet.
D. Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicized.

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Q84 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism which has:

A. Free DNA without protein coat
B. Inert crystalline structure
C. Abnormally folded protein
D. Free RNA without protein coat

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Q86 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in Column II. Column I Column II (a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs (b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic environment (c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of ruminants (d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty areas Select the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
C. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

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Q86 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in Column II. Column I: (a) Halophiles, (b) Thermoacidophiles, (c) Methanogens, (d) Cyanobacteria. Column II: (i) Hot springs, (ii) Aquatic environment, (iii) Guts of ruminants, (iv) Salty areas. Select the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
C. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

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Q87 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

In the dicot root, the vascular cambium originates from:

A. Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring
B. Tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue above protoxylem.
C. Cortical region
D. Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle

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Q88 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy?

A. Calotropis
B. Mustard
C. China rose
D. Alstonia

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Q89 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Regeneration of damaged growing grass following grazing is largely due to:

A. Secondary meristem
B. Lateral meristem
C. Apical meristem
D. Intercalary meristem

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Q90 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed septum is seen in:

A. Sesbania
B. Brassica
C. Aloe
D. Solanum

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Q91 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Select the incorrect statement regarding inbreeding.

A. Inbreeding depression cannot be overcome by out-crossing.
B. Inbreeding helps in elimination of deleterious alleles from the population.
C. Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pure line in any animal.
D. Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and leads to inbreeding depression.

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Q92 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest management should be:

A. Species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms
B. Species-specific and symbiotic
C. Free living and broad spectrum
D. Narrow spectrum and symbiotic

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Q93 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Match the following enzymes with their functions: (a) Restriction endonuclease (b) Restriction exonuclease (c) DNA ligase (d) Taq polymerase Functions: (i) Joins the DNA fragments, (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template, (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position, (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA. Select the correct option from the following:

A. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
B. a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
C. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
D. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

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Q94 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 are for:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. Tetracycline and Kanamycin
B. Ampicillin and Tetracycline
C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
D. Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline

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Q95 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as:

A. Biowar
B. Bioweapon
C. Biopiracy
D. Bioethics

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Q95 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as

A. Biowar
B. Bioweapon
C. Biopiracy
D. Bioethics

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Q96 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Carnivorous animals like lions and leopards occupy the same niche, but lions prey mostly on larger animals and leopards on smaller ones. This mechanism of competition is referred to as

A. Competitive exclusion
B. Character displacement
C. Altruism
D. Resource partitioning

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Q97 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to introduction of Clarias gariepinus in river Yamuna can be categorised as

A. Alien species invasion
B. Co-extinction
C. Habitat fragmentation
D. Over exploitation

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Q98 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Match the following RNA polymerases with their transcribed products: (a) RNA polymerase I (b) RNA polymerase II (c) RNA polymerase III (i) tRNA (ii) rRNA (iii) hnRNA Select the correct option from the following:

A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
C. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)

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Q99 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

In a marriage between a male with blood group A and a female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of the parents?

A. Iᴬi (Male); Iᴮi (Female)
B. Iᴬi (Male); IᴮIᴮ (Female)
C. IᴬIᴬ (Male); IᴮIᴮ (Female)
D. IᴬIᴬ (Male); Iᴮi (Female)

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Q100 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the following condition will lead to adaptive radiation?

A. Area with many habitats occupied by a large number of species.
B. Area with large number of habitats having very low food supply.
C. Area with a single type of vacant habitat.
D. Area with many types of vacant habitats.

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.

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A. A = Protein hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = Hormone-receptor complex
B. A = Steroid hormone; B = Hormone-receptor complex; C = Protein
C. A = Protein hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP
D. A = Steroid hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second messenger

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it

A. provides passive immunity
B. is very specific and uses different macrophages
C. produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary response
D. has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy microbes

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Select the correct sequence of events.

A. Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell differentiation → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis
B. Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis
C. Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis → Cell differentiation
D. Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Gamete transfer → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following hormones is responsible for both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal ejection reflex?

A. Relaxin
B. Estrogen
C. Prolactin
D. Oxytocin

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because:

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A. Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase.
B. Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation.
C. FSH levels are high in the luteal phase.
D. LH levels are high in the luteal phase.

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as

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A. Convergent evolution
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Divergent evolution
D. Cyclical evolution

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Match the items of Column-I with Column-II: (a) XX-XO method of sex determination (b) XX-XY method of sex determination (c) Karyotype-45 (d) ZW-ZZ method of sex determination Column-II: (i) Turner's syndrome (ii) Female heterogametic (iii) Grasshopper (iv) Female homogametic Select the correct option from the following:

A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
C. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA? 3′ ATGCATGCATGCATG 5′ TEMPLATE STRAND 5′ TACGTACGTACGTAC 3′ CODING STRAND

A. 3′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3′
B. 3′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5′
C. 5′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 3′
D. 3′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 5′

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following statements is not correct?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (4 sets)

A. In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of muscle and response is its contraction
B. An action potential in an axon does not move backward because the segment behind is in a refractory phase
C. Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea results in the opening of the mechanically gated potassium-ion channels
D. Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight vision

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the following joints with the bones involved: (a) Gliding joint (b) Hinge joint (c) Pivot joint (d) Saddle joint (i) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb (ii) Between atlas and axis (iii) Between the carpals (iv) Between humerus and ulna Select the correct option from the following:

A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following diseases is an autoimmune disorder?

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A. Gout
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Arthritis
D. Osteoporosis

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Artificial light, extended work-time and reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of –

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A. Posterior pituitary gland
B. Thymus gland
C. Pineal gland
D. Adrenal gland

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following conditions will stimulate parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone?

A. Rise in blood Ca2+ levels
B. Fall in active Vitamin D levels
C. Fall in blood Ca2+ levels
D. Fall in bone Ca2+ levels

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following is a correct statement?

A. IUDs suppress gametogenesis
B. IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
C. IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
D. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect reproductive organs?

A. Chlamydiasis and AIDS
B. Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
C. Syphilis and Genital herpes
D. AIDS and Hepatitis B

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Select the correct statement.

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A. Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm.
B. Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles.
C. Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
D. Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is known as:

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A. Total Lung Capacity
B. Expiratory Capacity
C. Vital Capacity
D. Inspiratory Capacity

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

All the components of the nodal tissue are autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the normal pacemaker?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation.
B. SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation.
C. SA node is the only component to generate the threshold potential.
D. Only SA node can convey the action potential to the other components.

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the right atrium, close to the atrioventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to the heart apex for about 0.1 s. This delay allows:

A. the atria to empty completely.
B. blood to enter aorta.
C. the ventricles to empty completely.
D. blood to enter pulmonary arteries.

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the following parts of a nephron with their function: (a) Descending limb of Henle's loop (b) Proximal convoluted tubule (c) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (d) Distal convoluted tubule (i) Reabsorption of salts only (ii) Reabsorption of water only (iii) Conditional reabsorption of sodium ions and water (iv) Reabsorption of ions, water and organic nutrients Select the correct option from the following:

A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II: Column-I (a) Podocytes (b) Protonephridia (c) Nephridia (d) Renal calculi Column-II (i) Crystallised oxalates (ii) Annelids (iii) Amphioxus (iv) Filtration slits Select the correct option from the following:

A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following receptors are specifically responsible for maintenance of balance of body and posture?

A. Crista ampullaris and macula
B. Basilar membrane and otoliths
C. Hair cells and organ of Corti
D. Tectorial membrane and macula

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which of the following cell organelles is present in the highest number in secretory cells?

A. Lysosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi complex
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of:

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A. tRNA
B. Protein synthesis
C. mRNA
D. rRNA

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Q136 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit for the electron in a hydrogen atom equals 0.51 Å and its ground state energy equals -13.6 eV. If the electron in the hydrogen atom is replaced by a muon (μ−) having charge same as electron and mass 207 me, the first Bohr radius and ground state energy will be:

A. 2.56 × 10^-13 m, -13.6 eV
B. 0.53 × 10^-13 m, -3.6 eV
C. 25.6 × 10^-13 m, -2.8 eV
D. 2.56 × 10^-13 m, -2.8 keV

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Q137 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit shown is:

A. 0.4 V
B. 0.6 V
C. 0 V
D. 0.5 V

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Q138 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

The metre bridge shown is in balance position with l1/l2 = P/Q. If we now interchange the positions of galvanometer and cell, will the bridge work? If yes, what will be the balance condition?

A. yes, l1/l2 = P/Q
B. yes, (l1 - l2)/(l2 + l1)
C. no, no null point
D. yes, l1/l2 = Q/P

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Q139 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

The relations amongst the three elements of earth’s magnetic field, namely horizontal component H, vertical component V and dip angle δ, are (BE = total magnetic field):

A. V = BE, H = BE tanδ
B. V = BE tanδ, H = BE
C. V = BE sinδ, H = BE cosδ
D. V = BE cosδ, H = BE sinδ

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Q139 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

The relations amongst the three elements of earth’s magnetic field, namely horizontal component H, vertical component V and dip δ (BE = total magnetic field), are:

A. V = BE, H = BE tan δ
B. V = BE tan δ, H = BE
C. V = BE sin δ, H = BE cos δ
D. V = BE cos δ, H = BE sin δ

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Q140 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

In a U-tube as shown in the figure, water and oil are in the left side and right side of the tube respectively. The heights from the bottom for water and oil columns are 15 cm and 20 cm respectively. The density of the oil is (take ρwater = 1000 kg/m^3):

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 1333 kg/m^3
B. 1200 kg/m^3
C. 750 kg/m^3
D. 1000 kg/m^3

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Q141 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

A deep rectangular pond of surface area A, containing water (density = ρ, specific heat capacity = s), is located in a region where the outside air temperature is at a steady value of –26°C. The thickness of the frozen ice layer in this pond, at a certain instant is x. Taking the thermal conductivity of ice as K, and its specific latent heat of fusion as L, the rate of increase of the thickness of ice layer, at this instant, would be given by

A. 26K / ρx(L + 4s)
B. 26K / ρx(L – 4s)
C. 26K / (ρx2L)
D. 26K / (ρxL)

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Q142 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

An LED is constructed from a p-n junction diode using GaAsP. The energy gap is 1.9 eV. The wavelength of the light emitted will be equal to

A. 654 × 10^-11 m
B. 10.4 × 10^-26 m
C. 654 nm
D. 654 Å

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Q143 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to the logic gate,

A. NAND
B. NOR
C. AND
D. OR

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Q144 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure

The values of (Cp/Cv) for hydrogen, helium and another ideal diatomic gas X (whose molecules are not rigid but have an additional vibrational mode), are respectively equal to,

A. 7/5, 5/3, 7/5
B. 7/5, 7/5, 5/7
C. 5/7, 7/5, 3/5
D. 5/5, 7/7, 3/5

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Q145 PHYSICS Unit 20: Experimental Skills

The main scale of a vernier callipers has n divisions/cm. n divisions of the vernier scale coincide with (n – 1) divisions of main scale. The least count of the vernier callipers is,

A. 1/[n(n + 1)] cm
B. 1/[(n − 1)(n + 1)] cm
C. 1/n cm
D. 1/n2 cm

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Q146 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

A person travelling in a straight line moves with a constant velocity v1 for a certain distance x and with a constant velocity v2 for next equal distance. The average velocity v is given by the relation

A. v = v1 + v2
B. v = 1/(1/v1 + 1/v2)
C. v = 2/(1/v1 + 1/v2)
D. v = (v1 + v2)/2

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Q147 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

Assuming that the gravitational potential energy of an object at infinity is zero, the change in potential energy (final – initial) of an object of mass m, when taken to a height h from the surface of earth (of radius R), is given by,

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A. +GMm/(Rh)
B. −GMm/(Rh)
C. GMmh/[R(R + h)]
D. mgh

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Q148 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

1 g of water, of volume 1 cm3 at 100°C, is converted into steam at same temperature under normal atmospheric pressure (1 × 10^5 Pa). The volume of steam formed equals 1671 cm3. If the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2256 J/g, the change in internal energy is,

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 2256 J
B. 2423 J
C. 2089 J
D. 167 J

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Q149 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

Angular width of the central maxima in the Fraunhofer diffraction for λ = 6000 Å is θ0. When the same slit is illuminated by another monochromatic light, the angular width decreases by 30%. The wavelength of this light is

A. 420 Å
B. 1800 Å
C. 4200 Å
D. 6000 Å

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Q150 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

The work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoemission from the substance is approximately

A. 310 nm
B. 3100 nm
C. 966 nm
D. 31 nm

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Q151 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

A proton and an α-particle are accelerated from rest to the same energy. The de Broglie wavelengths λp and λα are in the ratio

A. 4 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 1 : 1
D. 1/2 : 1

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Q152 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

An object kept in a large room having air temperature of 25°C takes 12 minutes to cool from 80°C to 70°C. The time taken to cool for the same object from 70°C to 60°C would be nearly

A. 15 min
B. 10 min
C. 12 min
D. 20 min

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Q153 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

Two small spherical metal balls, having equal masses, are made from materials of densities ρ1 and ρ2 (ρ1 = 8ρ2) and have radii of 1 mm and 2 mm, respectively. They are made to fall vertically from rest in a viscous medium whose coefficient of viscosity equals η and whose density is 0.1ρ2. The ratio of their terminal velocities would be

A. 79/36
B. 79/72
C. 19/36
D. 3/72

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Q154 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

A particle starting from rest moves in a circle of radius r. It attains a velocity of V0 m/s in the nth round. Its angular acceleration will be

A. V0^2/(4nrπ) rad/s^2
B. 2V0^2/n rad/s^2
C. V0^2/(2nrπ) rad/s^2
D. V0^2/(4nrπ) rad/s^2

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Q155 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor in time t1 if the elevator is at rest and in time t2 if the elevator is moving uniformly. Then

A. t1 = t2
B. t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending upon whether the lift is going up or down
C. t1 < t2
D. t1 > t2

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Q156 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

A truck is stationary and has a bob suspended by a light string, in a frame attached to the truck. The truck suddenly moves to the right with an acceleration of a. The pendulum will tilt

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is tan^-1(g/a)
B. to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is sin^-1(g/a)
C. to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is tan^-1(a/g)
D. to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is sin^-1(a/g)

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Q157 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

Two toroids 1 and 2 have total number of turns 200 and 100 respectively with average radii 40 cm and 20 cm respectively. If they carry the same current i, the ratio of the magnetic fields along the two loops is

A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 1
C. 4 : 1
D. 2 : 1

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Q158 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A straight conductor carrying current i splits into two parts as shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is R. The total magnetic field at the centre P of the loop is

A. μ0 i/(2R), inward
B. Zero
C. 3μ0 i/(32R), outward
D. 3μ0 i/(32R), inward

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Q159 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

The variation of emf with time for four types of generators are shown in the figures. Which amongst them can be called AC?

A. Only (a)
B. (a) and (d)
C. (a), (b), (c), (d)
D. (a) and (b)

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Q160 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of radius 2R respectively have the same surface charge density σ. They are brought in contact and separated. What will be the new surface charge densities on them?

A. σ1 = 5σ/36, σ2 = 5σ/6
B. σ1 = 5σ/6, σ2 = 5σ/2
C. σ1 = 5σ/2, σ2 = 5σ/6
D. σ1 = 5σ/6, σ2 = 5σ/3

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Q161 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

The distance covered by a particle undergoing SHM in one time period is (amplitude = A)

A. 4A
B. Zero
C. A
D. 2A

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Q162 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

A mass falls from a height h and its time of fall t is recorded in terms of time period T of a simple pendulum. On the surface of earth it is found that t = 2T. The entire set up is taken on the surface of another planet whose mass is half that of earth and radius the same. Same experiment is repeated and corresponding times noted as t' and T'. Then we can say

A. t' = 2T'
B. t' = T'/2
C. t' > 2T'
D. t' < 2T'

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Q163 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces resonance in a resonance column tube with upper end open and lower end closed by water surface. Successive resonances are observed at lengths 9.75 cm, 31.25 cm and 52.75 cm. The speed of sound in air is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 172 m/s
B. 500 m/s
C. 156 m/s
D. 344 m/s

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Q164 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

An object flying in air with velocity (20î - 25ĵ + 12k̂) suddenly breaks into two pieces whose masses are in the ratio 1 : 5. The smaller mass flies off with a velocity (100î + 35ĵ + 8k̂). The velocity of the larger piece will be

A. (-20î - 15ĵ - 80k̂)
B. (4î - 23ĵ - 16k̂)
C. (-100î - 35ĵ - 8k̂)
D. (20î - 15ĵ - 80k̂)

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Q164 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion

An object flying in air with velocity (20i + 25j − 12k) m/s suddenly breaks into two pieces whose masses are in the ratio 1 : 5. The smaller mass flies off with a velocity (100i + 35j + 8k) m/s. The velocity of the larger piece will be:

A. (−20i − 15j − 80k) m/s
B. (4i − 23j − 16k) m/s
C. (−100i − 35j − 8k) m/s
D. (20i − 15j − 80k) m/s

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Q166 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

The time period of a geostationary satellite is 24 h, at a height 6R_E from the surface of earth. The time period of another satellite whose height is 2.5R_E from the surface will be:

A. 12/2.5 h
B. 6/2 h
C. 12√2 h
D. 24/2.5 h

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Q167 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A circuit when connected to an AC source of 12 V gives a current of 0.2 A. The same circuit when connected to a DC source of 12 V, gives a current of 0.4 A. The circuit is:

A. Series LCR
B. Series LR
C. Series RC
D. Series LC

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Q168 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is rotated with constant angular velocity of 10 rad/s in a region of magnetic field of 0.1 T which is perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. The EMF generated between its centre and the rim is:

A. Zero
B. 0.25 V
C. 0.125 V
D. 0.5 V

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Q169 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves

For a transparent medium, relative permeability and permittivity, μ_r and ε_r are 1.0 and 1.44 respectively. The velocity of light in this medium would be:

A. 4.32 × 10^8 m/s
B. 2.5 × 10^8 m/s
C. 3 × 10^8 m/s
D. 2.08 × 10^8 m/s

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Q170 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

A sphere encloses an electric dipole with charges ±3 × 10^-6 C. What is the total electric flux across the sphere?

A. 6 × 10^-6 N m^2/C
B. -3 × 10^-6 N m^2/C
C. Zero
D. 3 × 10^-6 N m^2/C

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Q171 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

Two identical capacitors C1 and C2 of equal capacitance are connected as shown in the circuit. Terminals a and b of the key k are connected to charge capacitor C1 using a battery of emf V volt. Now, after disconnecting a and b, the terminals b and c are connected. Due to this, what will be the percentage loss of energy?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 0%
D. 50%

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Q172 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

An equiconvex lens has power P. It is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal axis. The power of one part will be:

A. P
C. P/2
D. P/4

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Q172 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

An equiconvex lens has power P. It is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal axis. The power of one part will be,

A. P
C. P/2
D. P/4

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Q173 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

In a Young’s double slit experiment, if there is no initial phase difference between the light from the two slits, a point on the screen corresponding to the fifth minimum has path difference

A. 11λ/2
B. 5λ/2
C. 10λ/2
D. 9λ/2

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Q174 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm. The radius of curvature of one of the surfaces is double of the other. Find the radii if the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5.

A. 50 cm, 100 cm
B. 100 cm, 50 cm
C. 25 cm, 50 cm
D. 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm

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Q175 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from roof tops of two buildings 100 m apart and of same height of 200 m, with the same velocity of 25 m/s. When and where will the two bullets collide? (g = 10 m/s²)

A. They will not collide
B. After 2 s at a height of 180 m
C. After 2 s at a height of 20 m
D. After 4 s at a height of 120 m

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Q176 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

The stress-strain curves are drawn for two different materials X and Y. It is observed that the ultimate strength point and the fracture point are close to each other for material X but are far apart for material Y. We can say that materials X and Y are likely to be (respectively),

A. Plastic and ductile
B. Ductile and brittle
C. Brittle and ductile
D. Brittle and plastic

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Q177 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal surface (coefficient of friction = μ). A horizontal force is applied on the body, but it does not move. The resultant of normal reaction and the frictional force acting on the object is given by F, where F is,

A. F = mg
B. F = mg + μmg
C. F = μmg
D. F ≤ mg\sqrt{1+μ^2}

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Q178 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

A particle of mass 5m at rest suddenly breaks on its own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m each move along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v each. The energy released during the process is,

A. 4mv²/3
B. 2mv²/3
C. 2mv²/5
D. 2mv²/2

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Q178 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

A particle of mass 5m at rest suddenly breaks on its own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m each move along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v each. The energy released during the process is,

A. 4mv²/3
B. 2mv²/5
C. 5mv²/3
D. 2mv²/3

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Q179 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

An object of mass 500 g, initially at rest, is acted upon by a variable force whose X-component varies with x in the manner shown. The velocities of the object at the points x = 8 m and x = 12 m, would have the respective values of (nearly)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2019 (1 set)

A. 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s
B. 18 m/s and 24.4 m/s
C. 23 m/s and 24.4 m/s
D. 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s

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Q180 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination 30°. The centre of mass of the cylinder has speed of 4 m/s. The distance travelled by the cylinder on the inclined surface will be, [take g = 10 m/s²]

A. 2.4 m
B. 2.2 m
C. 1.6 m
D. 1.2 m

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