Q1
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance R are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference V volts. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10√2 A. The impedance of the circuit is:
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2021 (5 sets)
- A. 4√2 Ω
- B. 5√2 Ω
- C. 4 Ω
- D. 5 Ω
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Q3
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?
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2021 (3 sets)
- A. towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
- B. towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.
- C. towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
- D. towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
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Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
A capacitor of capacitance C, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by V = V_0 sinωt. The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by:
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2021 (4 sets)
- A. I_d = V_0 ωC cosωt
- B. I_d = (V_0 / ωC) cosωt
- C. I_d = (V_0 / ωC) sinωt
- D. I_d = V_0 ωC sinωt
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Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on A leaves B as a parallel beam, then the distance d in cm will be:
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. 25
- B. 15
- C. 50
- D. 30
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Q8
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
Match Column I with Column II based on flow of current through a metallic conductor: Column I (A) Drift Velocity (B) Electrical Resistivity (C) Relaxation Period (D) Current Density; Column II (P) m / (ne^2τ) (Q) nev_d (R) eEτ/m (S) E/J
- A. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
- B. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
- C. (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
- D. (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
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Q10
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. 0.25 Ω
- B. 0.5 Ω
- C. 1 Ω
- D. 4 Ω
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Q12
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be:
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. 1/2
- B. 1/(2√2)
- C. 2/3
- D. 2/(3√2)
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Q14
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by a source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3×10⁻³ watt will be: (h=6.6×10⁻³⁴ Js)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (12 sets)
- A. 10¹⁸
- B. 10¹⁷
- C. 10¹⁶
- D. 10¹⁵
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Q14
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3×10^-3 watt will be : (h=6.6×10^-34 Js)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (12 sets)
- A. 10^18
- B. 10^17
- C. 10^16
- D. 10^15
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Q15
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency n, the frequency of its potential energy is:
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2021 (12 sets)
- A. n
- B. 2n
- C. 3n
- D. 4n
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Q15
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy is :
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2021 (12 sets)
- A. n
- B. 2n
- C. 3n
- D. 4n
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Q16
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5 A. An electron is moving with a speed of 10⁵ m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance is 20 cm. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (8 sets)
- A. 4×10⁻²⁰ N
- B. 8π×10⁻²⁰ N
- C. 4π×10⁻²⁰ N
- D. 8×10⁻²⁰ N
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Q17
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
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2021 (12 sets)
- A. [F] [A] [T]
- B. [F] [A] [T²]
- C. [F] [A] [T⁻¹]
- D. [F] [A⁻¹] [T]
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Q17
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
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2021 (12 sets)
- A. [F] [A] [T]
- B. [F] [A] [T^2]
- C. [F] [A] [T^-1]
- D. [F] [A^-1] [T]
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Q18
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct match from the given choices.
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2021 (1 set)
- A. (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
- B. (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
- C. (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
- D. (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
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Q20
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. 0.9 MeV
- B. 9.4 MeV
- C. 804 MeV
- D. 216 MeV
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Q21
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire. Main scale reading: 0 mm, Circular scale reading: 52 divisions. Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is :
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2021 (6 sets)
- A. 0.52 cm
- B. 0.026 cm
- C. 0.26 cm
- D. 0.052 cm
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Q23
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since :
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
- B. a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
- C. a large aperture provides a better resolution.
- D. all of the above.
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Q24
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is :
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. R1/R2
- B. R2/R1
- C. (R1/R2)^2
- D. R2^2/R1^2
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Q25
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is :
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. 0.0628 s
- B. 6.28 s
- C. 3.14 s
- D. 0.628 s
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Q27
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is :
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. v
- B. 2v
- C. 3v
- D. 4v
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Q28
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ?
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. 60 cm
- B. 21.6 cm
- C. 64 cm
- D. 62 cm
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Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be :
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. Mg/2
- B. Mg
- C. 3Mg/2
- D. 2Mg
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Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Mg/2
- B. Mg
- C. 3Mg/2
- D. 2Mg
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Q30
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field ‘E’ in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor is : (ε0=permittivity of free space)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (12 sets)
- A. 1/2 * ε0 * E^2
- B. ε0 * E * A * d
- C. 1/2 * ε0 * E^2 * A * d
- D. ε0 * E^2 * A * d
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Q30
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and the area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is : (ε0 = permittivity of free space)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (12 sets)
- A. 1/2 ε0 E^2
- B. ε0 EAd
- C. 1/2 ε0 E^2 Ad
- D. ε0 E Ad / 2
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Q31
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. current in n-type = current in p-type.
- B. current in p-type > current in n-type.
- C. current in n-type > current in p-type.
- D. No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type.
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Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer. (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator. (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. (A) and (B) both are correct.
- B. (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
- C. (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
- D. (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
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Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Polar molecules are the molecules :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (11 sets)
- A. having zero dipole moment.
- B. acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges.
- C. acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent.
- D. having a permanent electric dipole moment.
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Q34
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E/G has the dimensions of :
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. [M^2][L^-1][T^0]
- B. [M][L^-1][T^-1]
- C. [M][L^0][T^0]
- D. [M^2][L^-2][T^-1]
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Q35
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine ? (g=10 m/s^2)
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. 10.2 kW
- B. 8.1 kW
- C. 12.3 kW
- D. 7.0 kW
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Q36
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s^2. At t=4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t=6 s ? (Take g=10 m/s^2)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (8 sets)
- A. 20 m/s, 5 m/s^2
- B. 20 m/s, 0
- C. 20√2 m/s, 0
- D. 20√2 m/s, 10 m/s^2
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Q38
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g=10 m/s^2) nearly :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (8 sets)
- A. 0 kg m/s
- B. 4.2 kg m/s
- C. 2.1 kg m/s
- D. 1.4 kg m/s
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Q40
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of :
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2021 (6 sets)
- A. 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
- B. 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
- C. 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
- D. 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
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Q41
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (11 sets)
- A. 0.2 A
- B. 0.4 A
- C. 2 A
- D. 4 A
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Q41
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (11 sets)
- A. 0.2 A
- B. 0.4 A
- C. 2 A
- D. 4 A
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Q44
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity v=kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (Ve=escape velocity) The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (8 sets)
- A. (k^2 / (1-k^2)) * R
- B. (k^2 / (1+k^2)) * R
- C. (R * k) / (1+k)
- D. (R*k^2) / (1-k^2)
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Q44
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity v = k Ve (k < 1) from the surface of the earth (Ve = escape velocity). The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (8 sets)
- A. R * k^2 / (1 - k^2)
- B. R * k^2 / (1 + k^2)
- C. R * k / (1 + k)
- D. R * k^2 / (1 - k)
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Q45
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. 660 V
- B. 1320 V
- C. 1520 V
- D. 1980 V
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Q46
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 µF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (7 sets)
- A. 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
- B. 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
- C. 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
- D. 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
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Q51
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
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2021 (4 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q53
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are:
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. sp3 and 4
- B. sp3 and 6
- C. sp2 and 6
- D. sp2 and 8
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Q54
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
- B. Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
- C. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
- D. Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.
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Q54
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
- B. Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
- C. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
- D. Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.
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Q55
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol−1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (11 sets)
- A. 201.28 S cm2 mol−1
- B. 390.71 S cm2 mol−1
- C. 698.28 S cm2 mol−1
- D. 540.48 S cm2 mol−1
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Q55
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm^2 mol^-1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (11 sets)
- A. 201.28 S cm^2 mol^-1
- B. 390.71 S cm^2 mol^-1
- C. 698.28 S cm^2 mol^-1
- D. 540.48 S cm^2 mol^-1
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Q56
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is exhibited by” is:
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2021 (8 sets)
- A. NaCl solution
- B. Glucose solution
- C. Starch solution
- D. Urea solution
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Q56
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
The right option for the statement 'Tyndall effect is exhibited by', is :
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2021 (8 sets)
- A. NaCl solution
- B. Glucose solution
- C. Starch solution
- D. Urea solution
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Q57
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
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- A. Vitamin B12
- B. Vitamin B6
- C. Vitamin B1
- D. Vitamin B2
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Q58
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is:
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2021 (4 sets)
- A. 120°
- B. 180°
- C. 60°
- D. 0°
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Q58
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
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2021 (7 sets)
- A. 120°
- B. 180°
- C. 60°
- D. 0°
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Q59
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The incorrect statement among the following is :
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
- B. Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.
- C. Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
- D. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
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Q60
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on ?
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. Saytzeff’s Rule
- B. Hund’s Rule
- C. Hofmann Rule
- D. Huckel’s Rule
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Q61
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas ?
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- A. CP/CV = R
- B. CP - CV = R
- C. CP = RCV
- D. CV = RCP
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Q62
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation ?
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2021 (6 sets)
- A. Teflon
- B. Nylon-66
- C. Novolac
- D. Dacron
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Q64
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Match List - I with List - II. List - I: (a) PCl5, (b) SF6, (c) BrF5, (d) BF3. List - II: (i) Square pyramidal, (ii) Trigonal planar, (iii) Octahedral, (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
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2021 (2 sets)
- A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Q65
PHYSICS
Unit 20: Experimental Skills
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature ?
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2021 (3 sets)
- A. Electrolysis
- B. Chromatography
- C. Distillation
- D. Zone refining
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Q67
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles ?
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2021 (7 sets)
- A. Beta (β-)
- B. Alpha (α)
- C. Gamma (γ)
- D. Neutron (n)
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Q68
CHEMISTRY
Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (9 sets)
- A. CH3–F < CH3–Cl < CH3–Br < CH3–I
- B. CH3–F > CH3–Cl > CH3–Br > CH3–I
- C. CH3–F < CH3–Cl > CH3–Br > CH3–I
- D. CH3–Cl > CH3–F > CH3–Br > CH3–I
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Q69
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
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- A. 8, 4
- B. 6, 12
- C. 2, 1
- D. 12, 6
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Q70
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.
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- A. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
- B. Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr
- C. Fe + 2HCl → FeCl2 + H2
- D. 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
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Q72
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is :
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. 8.50
- B. 5.50
- C. 7.75
- D. 6.25
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Q73
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
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- A. Calcium chloride
- B. Strontium chloride
- C. Magnesium chloride
- D. Beryllium chloride
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Q73
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
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- A. Calcium chloride
- B. Strontium chloride
- C. Magnesium chloride
- D. Beryllium chloride
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Q74
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :
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- A. upto 1200 K
- B. upto 2200 K
- C. upto 1900 K
- D. upto 5000 K
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Q75
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
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- A. Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms
- B. Unidentate ligand
- C. Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms
- D. Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms
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Q75
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms
- B. Unidentate ligand
- C. Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms
- D. Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms
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Q76
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. P2 > P1 > P3
- B. P1 > P2 > P3
- C. P2 > P3 > P1
- D. P3 > P1 > P2
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Q76
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. P2 > P1 > P3
- B. P1 > P2 > P3
- C. P2 > P3 > P1
- D. P3 > P1 > P2
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Q77
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
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2021 (5 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q78
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are :
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- A. Chain and dimer, respectively
- B. Linear in both
- C. Dimer and Linear, respectively
- D. Chain in both
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Q80
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
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- A. belonging to same group
- B. diagonal relationship
- C. lanthanoid contraction
- D. having similar chemical properties
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Q81
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light, c=3.0×10^8 ms^−1]
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- A. 219.3 m
- B. 219.2 m
- C. 2192 m
- D. 21.92 cm
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Q82
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
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- A. CH
- B. CH2
- C. CH3
- D. CH4
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Q83
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The compound which shows metamerism is :
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- A. C5H12
- B. C3H8O
- C. C3H6O
- D. C4H10O
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Q85
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
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2021 (7 sets)
- A. 7
- B. 5
- C. 2
- D. 3
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Q87
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 273 K is : [Given R=0.082 L atm mol^−1 K^−1, T=273 K]
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- A. 2.518
- B. 2.602
- C. 25.18
- D. 26.02
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Q89
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
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- A. ΔU=0, ΔStotal=0
- B. ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
- C. ΔU=0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
- D. ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal=0
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Q90
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it?
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- A. HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
- B. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values
- C. NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic character
- D. CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing oxidizing power
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Q91
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm^2 mol^-1. Given molar conductivity at infinite dilution for H+ is 350 S cm^2 mol^-1 and for CH3COO- is 50 S cm^2 mol^-1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid?
- A. 1.75×10^-4 mol L^-1
- B. 2.50×10^-4 mol L^-1
- C. 1.75×10^-5 mol L^-1
- D. 2.50×10^-5 mol L^-1
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Q92
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The slope of Arrhenius Plot (ln k v/s 1/T) of a first order reaction is -5×10^3 K. The value of Ea of the reaction is. [Given R=8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1]
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- A. 41.5 kJ mol^-1
- B. 83.0 kJ mol^-1
- C. 166 kJ mol^-1
- D. -83 kJ mol^-1
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Q95
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
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- A. POCl3
- B. CH2O
- C. SbCl5
- D. NO2
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Q96
CHEMISTRY
Unit 2: Atomic Structure
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
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- A. O^2-, F-
- B. Na+, Mg^2+
- C. Mn^2+, Fe^3+
- D. Fe^2+, Mn^2+
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Q97
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is: [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
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- A. 160 mm of Hg
- B. 168 mm of Hg
- C. 336 mm of Hg
- D. 350 mm of Hg
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Q101
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
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- A. Resource partitioning
- B. Competitive release
- C. Mutualism
- D. Predation
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Q103
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. RNA
- B. DNA
- C. Histones
- D. Polysaccharides
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Q103
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. RNA
- B. DNA
- C. Histones
- D. Polysaccharides
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Q104
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List - I with List - II regarding plant water relations.
- A. Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid phase; (b) Adhesion (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules; (c) Surface tension (iii) Water loss in liquid phase; (d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces
- B. (1)(ii)(iv)(i)(iii); (2)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i); (3)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii); (4)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
- C. Wait for mapping
- D. Wait for mapping
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Q105
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. Xenogamy
- B. Geitonogamy
- C. Chasmogamy
- D. Cleistogamy
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Q105
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (11 sets)
- A. Xenogamy
- B. Geitonogamy
- C. Chasmogamy
- D. Cleistogamy
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Q106
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
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- A. Metaphase I
- B. Metaphase II
- C. Anaphase II
- D. Telophase II
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Q106
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. Metaphase I
- B. Metaphase II
- C. Anaphase II
- D. Telophase II
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Q107
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
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- A. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
- B. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
- C. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
- D. Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
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Q108
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Gemmae are present in :
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- A. Mosses
- B. Pteridophytes
- C. Some Gymnosperms
- D. Some Liverworts
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Q109
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Bullet square
- B. Punch square
- C. Punnett square
- D. Net square
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Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
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- A. Natural selection
- B. Genetic recombination
- C. Mutation
- D. Genetic drift
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Q111
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :
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- A. Homosorus
- B. Heterosorus
- C. Homosporous
- D. Heterosporous
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Q112
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called :
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- A. Elasticity
- B. Flexibility
- C. Plasticity
- D. Maturity
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Q113
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants ?
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- A. Morphine, codeine
- B. Amino acids, glucose
- C. Vinblastin, curcumin
- D. Rubber, gums
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Q114
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
- A. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
- B. (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
- C. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
- D. (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
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Q115
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
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- A. Metacentric
- B. Telocentric
- C. Sub-metacentric
- D. Acrocentric
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Q116
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as :
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- A. Yellow bands
- B. Bright orange bands
- C. Dark red bands
- D. Bright blue bands
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Q117
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is :
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- A. Shoot apex
- B. Stem
- C. Axillary bud
- D. Leaf
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Q118
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
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- A. Biopiracy
- B. Gene therapy
- C. Molecular diagnosis
- D. Safety testing
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Q119
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following plants is monoecious ?
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- A. Carica papaya
- B. Chara
- C. Marchantia polymorpha
- D. Cycas circinalis
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Q120
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Molecular diagnosis
- B. Gene amplification
- C. Purification of isolated protein
- D. Detection of gene mutation
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Q121
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List - I with List - II regarding cell organelles.
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- A. (a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in chromosome; (b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus; (c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria; (d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
- B. (1)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i); (2)(i)(iv)(iii)(ii); (3)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii); (4)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
- C. Wait for mapping
- D. Wait for mapping
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Q122
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
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- A. China rose
- B. Citrus
- C. Pea
- D. China rose and citrus
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Q122
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
- A. China rose
- B. Citrus
- C. Pea
- D. China rose and citrus
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Q123
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Match List - I with List - II.
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (5 sets)
- A. (1)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
- B. (2)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
- C. (3)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
- D. (4)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
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Q123
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Match List - I with List - II regarding biotechnology methods.
- A. (a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency; (b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato; (c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones; (d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
- B. (1)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i); (2)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii); (3)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii); (4)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
- C. Wait for mapping
- D. Wait for mapping
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Q124
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Amensalism can be represented as :
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- A. Species A (−) ; Species B (0)
- B. Species A (1) ; Species B (1)
- C. Species A (−) ; Species B (−)
- D. Species A (1) ; Species B (0)
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Q124
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Amensalism can be represented as :
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- A. Species A (−) ; Species B (0)
- B. Species A (1) ; Species B (1)
- C. Species A (−) ; Species (−)
- D. Species A (1) ; Species B (0)
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Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
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- A. Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
- B. Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
- C. The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
- D. Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
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Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?
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2021 (11 sets)
- A. Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
- B. Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
- C. The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
- D. Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins.
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Q126
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
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- A. 8-nucleate and 7-celled
- B. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
- C. 7-nucleate and 7-celled
- D. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
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Q127
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?
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- A. Ectocarpus
- B. Gracilaria
- C. Volvox
- D. Ulothrix
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Q128
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is :
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- A. IAA
- B. NAA
- C. 2, 4-D
- D. IBA
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Q129
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
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- A. Climax
- B. Climax community
- C. Standing state
- D. Standing crop
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Q130
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
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- A. Kinetin
- B. Infrared rays
- C. Gamma rays
- D. Zeatin
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Q131
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
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- A. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
- B. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
- C. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
- D. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
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Q132
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In the equation GPP−R=NPP, R represents :
- A. Radiant energy
- B. Retardation factor
- C. Environment factor
- D. Respiration losses
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Q133
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Green algae
- B. Brown algae
- C. Red algae
- D. Blue-green algae
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Q134
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is :
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. Pyruvic acid
- B. Oxaloacetic acid
- C. Succinic acid
- D. Phosphoglyceric acid
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Q135
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Match List - I with List - II.
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (5 sets)
- A. (1)(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
- B. (2)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
- C. (3)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
- D. (4)(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
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Q136
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
- B. In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH+H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
- C. ATP is synthesized through complex V.
- D. Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.
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Q138
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List - I with List - II.
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesized
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
(c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (3 sets)
- A. (1)(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
- B. (2)(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
- C. (3)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
- D. (4)(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
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Q139
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
- B. the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.
- C. it will lead to lysis of host cell.
- D. it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability.
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Q139
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E. coli strain:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
- B. the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.
- C. it will lead to lysis of host cell.
- D. it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability.
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Q140
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Identify the correct statement.
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 39 end of hnRNA.
- B. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
- C. The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.
- D. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
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Q140
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Identify the correct statement.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA.
- B. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
- C. The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.
- D. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
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Q141
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (6 sets)
- A. mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
- B. mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.
- C. mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complimentarity with it.
- D. mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complimentarity with it.
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Q142
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
In the exponential growth equation Nt = Noert, e represents :
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. The base of number logarithms
- B. The base of exponential logarithms
- C. The base of natural logarithms
- D. The base of geometric logarithms
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Q143
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Select the correct pair.
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2021 (5 sets)
- A. Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary cells
- B. In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells - Conjunctive tissue
- C. Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring - Interfascicular cambium
- D. Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark - Spongy parenchyma
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Q144
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release ?
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2021 (8 sets)
- A. Poaceae ; Rosaceae
- B. Poaceae ; Leguminosae
- C. Poaceae ; Solanaceae
- D. Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
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Q145
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (7 sets)
- A. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
- B. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
- C. Transcribes precursor of mRNA
- D. Transcribes only snRNAs
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Q146
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
- B. Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
- C. Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
- D. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
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Q147
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following statements is correct ?
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2021 (7 sets)
- A. Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
- B. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
- C. Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
- D. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
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Q148
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Match List - I with List - II.
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
(b) Unsaturated fatty acid (ii) Phosphodiester bonds
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (2 sets)
- A. (1)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
- B. (2)(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
- C. (3)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
- D. (4)(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
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Q149
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (9 sets)
- A. Satellite DNA
- B. Repetitive DNA
- C. Single nucleotides
- D. Polymorphic DNA
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Q150
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match Column - I with Column - II.
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
(b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
(c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (5 sets)
- A. (1)(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
- B. (2)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
- C. (3)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
- D. (4)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
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Q151
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Degenerate primer sequence
- B. Okazaki sequences
- C. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
- D. Poly(A) tail sequences
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Q151
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Degenerate primer sequence
- B. Okazaki sequences
- C. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
- D. Poly(A) tail sequences
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Q152
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. 8
- B. 16
- C. 4
- D. 32
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Q152
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. 8
- B. 16
- C. 4
- D. 32
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Q153
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Fire fly
- B. Grasshopper
- C. Cockroach
- D. House fly
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Q153
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Fire fly
- B. Grasshopper
- C. Cockroach
- D. House fly
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Q154
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Succus entericus is referred to as :
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. Pancreatic juice
- B. Intestinal juice
- C. Gastric juice
- D. Chyme
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Q155
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (8 sets)
- A. (b) and (d) only
- B. (b) and (c) only
- C. (a), (c) and (d) only
- D. (a) and (d) only
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Q156
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
- B. Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
- C. Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
- D. Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
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Q157
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. 50%
- B. 75%
- C. 25%
- D. 100%
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Q158
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. Thrombin
- B. Renin
- C. Epinephrine
- D. Thrombokinase
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Q159
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (9 sets)
- A. pO2=104 and pCO2=40
- B. pO2=40 and pCO2=45
- C. pO2=95 and pCO2=40
- D. pO2=159 and pCO2=0.3
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Q160
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (9 sets)
- A. Arthritis
- B. Muscular dystrophy
- C. Myasthenia gravis
- D. Gout
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Q161
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (6 sets)
- A. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
- B. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
- C. DNA Ligase
- D. DNase
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Q162
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (5 sets)
- A. mRNA
- B. tRNA
- C. rRNA
- D. siRNA
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Q163
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD ?
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2021 (7 sets)
- A. CuT
- B. LNG 20
- C. Cu 7
- D. Multiload 375
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Q164
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it ?
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2021 (8 sets)
- A. T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
- B. T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
- C. T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
- D. T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
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Q165
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List - I with List - II.
(a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (7 sets)
- A. (1) (iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
- B. (2) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
- C. (3) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
- D. (4) (iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
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Q166
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Read the following statements.
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (8 sets)
- A. (c), (d) and (e) are correct
- B. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
- C. (a), (d) and (e) are correct
- D. (b), (c) and (e) are correct
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Q167
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. Corona radiata
- B. Vitelline membrane
- C. Perivitelline space
- D. Zona pellucida
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Q167
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Corona radiata
- B. Vitelline membrane
- C. Perivitelline space
- D. Zona pellucida
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Q168
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List - I with List - II.
(a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
(b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora
(c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
(d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (7 sets)
- A. (1) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
- B. (2) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
- C. (3) (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
- D. (4) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
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Q168
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Metamerism, (b) Canal system, (c) Comb plates, (d) Cnidoblasts. List II: (i) Coelenterata, (ii) Ctenophora, (iii) Annelida, (iv) Porifera.
- A. (1)(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
- B. (2)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
- C. (3)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
- D. (4)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
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Q169
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Alpha cells of pancreas
- B. The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
- C. The cells of bone marrow
- D. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
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Q169
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Alpha cells of pancreas
- B. The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
- C. The cells of bone marrow
- D. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
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Q170
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Veneral diseases can spread through : (a) Using sterile needles, (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person, (c) Infected mother to foetus, (d) Kissing, (e) Inheritance. Choose the correct answer.
- A. (1)(a), (b) and (c) only
- B. (2)(b), (c) and (d) only
- C. (3)(b) and (c) only
- D. (4)(a) and (c) only
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Q171
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach ?
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
- B. Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
- C. In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital pouch.
- D. 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
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Q172
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match the following: (a) Physalia, (b) Limulus, (c) Ancylostoma, (d) Pinctada. List II: (i) Pearl oyster, (ii) Portuguese Man of War, (iii) Living fossil, (iv) Hookworm.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (3 sets)
- A. (1)(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
- B. (2)(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
- C. (3)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
- D. (4)(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
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Q173
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones ?
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. Neophron
- B. Hemidactylus
- C. Macropus
- D. Ornithorhynchus
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Q174
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. S-phase
- B. Prophase
- C. Metaphase
- D. G2 phase
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Q175
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first ?
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. Annealing
- B. Extension
- C. Denaturation
- D. Ligation
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Q176
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops ?
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. Improve protein content
- B. Improve resistance to diseases
- C. Improve vitamin content
- D. Improve micronutrient and mineral content
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Q177
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. CFCs
- B. Stratosphere
- C. Ozone
- D. Troposphere
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Q178
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. Ileo-caecal junction
- B. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
- C. Gastro-oesophageal junction
- D. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
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Q179
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
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2021 (9 sets)
- A. High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
- B. Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
- C. High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
- D. Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
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Q180
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Identify the incorrect pair.
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2021 (2 sets)
- A. Alkaloids- Codeine
- B. Toxin - Abrin
- C. Lectins - Concanavalin A
- D. Drugs - Ricin
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Q181
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle ?
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2021 (8 sets)
- A. These muscle have no striations
- B. They are involuntary muscles
- C. Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
- D. These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
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Q182
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection ?
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2021 (10 sets)
- A. Western Blotting Technique
- B. Southern Blotting Technique
- C. ELISA Technique
- D. Hybridization Technique
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Q182
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2021 (10 sets)
- A. Western Blotting Technique
- B. Southern Blotting Technique
- C. ELISA Technique
- D. Hybridization Technique
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