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Comparative Exams · NEET · 2021

NEET 2021 CODE P6

180 questions from this NEET 2021 paper. Log in to view the correct answer and explanation for each question.

Q1 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. 4 v
  • B. v
  • C. 2 v
  • D. 3 v

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Q1 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. 4v
  • B. v
  • C. 2v
  • D. 3v

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C at a room temperature same at 20°C is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (7 sets)
  • A. 5t/13
  • B. 13t/10
  • C. 13t/5
  • D. 10t/13

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C at a room temperature same at 20°C is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (7 sets)
  • A. 5t/13
  • B. 13t/10
  • C. 13t/5
  • D. 10t/13

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Polar molecules are the molecules :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. having a permanent electric dipole moment.
  • B. having zero dipole moment.
  • C. acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges.
  • D. acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent.

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Polar molecules are the molecules :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. having a permanent electric dipole moment.
  • B. having zero dipole moment.
  • C. acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges.
  • D. acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent.

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field ‘E’ in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor is : (ε0 = permittivity of free space)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. (1/2)ε0 E² Ad
  • B. (1/2)ε0 E²
  • C. ε0 EAd
  • D. ε0 E² Ad

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type.
  • B. current in n-type = current in p-type.
  • C. current in p-type > current in n-type.
  • D. current in n-type > current in p-type.

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Q12 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. R2²/R1²
  • B. R1/R2
  • C. R2/R1
  • D. R1²/R2²

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer. (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator. (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
  • B. (A) and (B) both are correct.
  • C. (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
  • D. (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer. (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator. (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
  • B. (A) and (B) both are correct.
  • C. (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
  • D. (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. 62 cm
  • B. 60 cm
  • C. 21.6 cm
  • D. 64 cm

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. 62 cm
  • B. 60 cm
  • C. 21.6 cm
  • D. 64 cm

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by V = V0 sinωt. The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. Id = V0ωC sinωt
  • B. Id = V0ωC cosωt
  • C. Id = (V0 / ωC) cosωt
  • D. Id = (V0 / ωC) sinωt

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Q20 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3×10⁻³ watt will be: (h = 6.6×10⁻³⁴ Js)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. 10¹⁵
  • B. 10¹⁸
  • C. 10¹⁷
  • D. 10¹⁶

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Q21 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be the distance travelled by the block in the interval t=n-1 to t=n. Then, the ratio Sn/Sn+1 is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. (2n) / (2n - 1)
  • B. (2n - 1) / (2n)
  • C. (2n - 1) / (2n + 1)
  • D. (2n + 1) / (2n - 1)

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Q22 PHYSICS Unit 20: Experimental Skills
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire. Main scale reading : 0 mm. Circular scale reading : 52 divisions. Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. 0.052 cm
  • B. 0.52 cm
  • C. 0.026 cm
  • D. 0.26 cm

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Q24 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
  • B. a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
  • C. a large aperture provides a better resolution.
  • D. all of the above.

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy is:
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  • A. 4n
  • B. n
  • C. 2n
  • D. 3n

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. 2 / 3√2
  • B. 1/2
  • C. 1 / 2√2
  • D. 2/3

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. [F] [A^-1] [T]
  • B. [F] [A] [T]
  • C. [F] [A] [T^2]
  • D. [F] [A] [T^-1]

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? (g=10 m/s²)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. 7.0 kW
  • B. 10.2 kW
  • C. 8.1 kW
  • D. 12.3 kW

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? (g=10 m/s^2)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. 7.0 kW
  • B. 10.2 kW
  • C. 8.1 kW
  • D. 12.3 kW

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. 4 Ω
  • B. 0.25 Ω
  • C. 0.5 Ω
  • D. 1 Ω

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (12 sets)
  • A. 4 Ω
  • B. 0.25 Ω
  • C. 0.5 Ω
  • D. 1 Ω

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column - II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column - I and Column - II with appropriate relations. Column - I: (A) Drift Velocity, (B) Electrical Resistivity, (C) Relaxation Period, (D) Current Density Column - II: (P) 2m/ne^2τ, (Q) nev_d, (R) eEτ/m, (S) E/J
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
  • B. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
  • C. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
  • D. (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. 216 MeV
  • B. 0.9 MeV
  • C. 9.4 MeV
  • D. 804 MeV

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. 30
  • B. 25
  • C. 15
  • D. 50

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Q34 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. 0.628 s
  • B. 0.0628 s
  • C. 6.28 s
  • D. 3.14 s

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Q35 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E/G has the dimensions of:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. [M^2] [L^-2] [T^-1]
  • B. [M^2] [L^-1] [T^0]
  • C. [M] [L^-1] [T^-1]
  • D. [M] [L^0] [T^0]

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Q36 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
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  • A. 1980 V
  • B. 660 V
  • C. 1320 V
  • D. 1520 V

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Q41 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity v = kv_e (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (v_e = escape velocity). The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (7 sets)
  • A. (k^2 * R) / (1 - k^2)
  • B. (R * k^2) / (1 - k)
  • C. (R * k^2) / (1 + k)
  • D. (R * k) / (1 + k)

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Q42 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. 4 A
  • B. 0.2 A
  • C. 0.4 A
  • D. 2 A

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Q44 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g=10 m/s^2) nearly:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. 1.4 kg m/s
  • B. 0 kg m/s
  • C. 4.2 kg m/s
  • D. 2.1 kg m/s

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Q45 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s^2. At t=4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t=6 s? (Take g=10 m/s^2)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. 20 sqrt(2) m/s, 10 m/s^2
  • B. 20 m/s, 5 m/s^2
  • C. 20 m/s, 0
  • D. 20 sqrt(2) m/s, 0

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Q46 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (6 sets)
  • A. 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
  • B. 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
  • C. 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
  • D. 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.

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Q47 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
In the product F = q(v x B). For q=1, v = 2i + 4j + 6k and F = 4i - 20j + 12k. What will be the complete expression for B?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (2 sets)
  • A. 6i - 6j + 8k
  • B. 8i - 8j - 6k
  • C. 6i - 6j - 8k
  • D. 8i + 8j - 6k

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Q48 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 µF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (7 sets)
  • A. 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
  • B. 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
  • C. 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
  • D. 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s

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Q51 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is:
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  • A.
  • B. 120°
  • C. 180°
  • D. 60°

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Q52 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Chain in both
  • B. Chain and dimer, respectively
  • C. Linear in both
  • D. Dimer and Linear, respectively

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Q54 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm^2 mol^-1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. 540.48 S cm^2 mol^-1
  • B. 201.28 S cm^2 mol^-1
  • C. 390.71 S cm^2 mol^-1
  • D. 698.28 S cm^2 mol^-1

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Q55 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
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  • A. 12, 6
  • B. 8, 4
  • C. 6, 12
  • D. 2, 1

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Q55 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (2 sets)
  • A. 12, 6
  • B. 8, 4
  • C. 6, 12
  • D. 2, 1

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles?
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  • A. Neutron (n)
  • B. Beta (β-)
  • C. Alpha (α)
  • D. Gamma (γ)

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles ?
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  • A. Neutron (n)
  • B. Beta (β-)
  • C. Alpha (α)
  • D. Gamma (γ)

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
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  • A. CH4
  • B. CH
  • C. CH2
  • D. CH3

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. CH4
  • B. CH
  • C. CH2
  • D. CH3

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction ? Acetone + C2H5MgBr (dry Ether) followed by H3O+
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. 2-methyl butan-2-ol
  • B. 2-methyl propan-2-ol
  • C. pentan-2-ol
  • D. pentan-3-ol

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Q61 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Match List - I with List - II. List-I: (a) PCl5, (b) SF6, (c) BrF5, (d) BF3. List-II: (i) Square pyramidal, (ii) Trigonal planar, (iii) Octahedral, (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (2 sets)
  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

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Q62 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :
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  • A. upto 5000 K
  • B. upto 1200 K
  • C. upto 2200 K
  • D. upto 1900 K

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Q63 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas ?
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  • A. CV=RCP
  • B. CP/CV=R
  • C. CP−CV=R
  • D. CP=RCV

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Q64 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Statement I: Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. Statement II: As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (6 sets)
  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

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Q65 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is :
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  • A. Urea solution
  • B. NaCl solution
  • C. Glucose solution
  • D. Starch solution

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Q66 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
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  • A. 3
  • B. 7
  • C. 5
  • D. 2

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Q67 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.
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  • A. 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
  • B. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
  • C. Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr
  • D. Fe + 2HCl → FeCl2 + H2

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is :
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  • A. 6.25
  • B. 8.50
  • C. 5.50
  • D. 7.75

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on ?
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  • A. Huckel’s Rule
  • B. Saytzeff’s Rule
  • C. Hund’s Rule
  • D. Hofmann Rule

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation ?
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  • A. Dacron
  • B. Teflon
  • C. Nylon-66
  • D. Novolac

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
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  • A. Vitamin B2
  • B. Vitamin B12
  • C. Vitamin B6
  • D. Vitamin B1

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Q73 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose, urea, and sucrose in 250 ml of water. The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (1 set)
  • A. P3 > P1 > P2
  • B. P2 > P1 > P3
  • C. P1 > P2 > P3
  • D. P2 > P3 > P1

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Q74 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz. The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light, c=3.0×10^8 ms^-1]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. 21.92 cm
  • B. 219.3 m
  • C. 219.2 m
  • D. 2192 m

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Q74 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz. The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light, c = 3.0 × 10^8 ms^-1]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. 21.92 cm
  • B. 219.3 m
  • C. 219.2 m
  • D. 2192 m

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Q75 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.
  • B. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
  • C. Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
  • D. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.

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Q75 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.
  • B. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
  • C. Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
  • D. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.

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Q76 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

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Q77 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. Zone refining
  • B. Electrolysis
  • C. Chromatography
  • D. Distillation

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Q78 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. CH3−Cl > CH3−F > CH3−Br > CH3−I
  • B. CH3−F < CH3−Cl < CH3−Br < CH3−I
  • C. CH3−F > CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I
  • D. CH3−F < CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The compound which shows metamerism is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. C4H10O
  • B. C5H12
  • C. C3H8O
  • D. C3H6O

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Q80 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms
  • B. Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms
  • C. Unidentate ligand
  • D. Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
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  • A. having similar chemical properties
  • B. belonging to same group
  • C. diagonal relationship
  • D. lanthanoid contraction

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Q82 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. sp2 and 8
  • B. sp3 and 4
  • C. sp3 and 6
  • D. sp2 and 6

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Q84 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The incorrect statement among the following is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
  • B. Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
  • C. Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.
  • D. Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
  • A. Beryllium chloride
  • B. Calcium chloride
  • C. Strontium chloride
  • D. Magnesium chloride

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is : [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. 350 mm of Hg
  • B. 160 mm of Hg
  • C. 168 mm of Hg
  • D. 336 mm of Hg

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Q87 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal = 0
  • B. ΔU = 0, ΔStotal = 0
  • C. ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
  • D. ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0

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Q89 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is : [Given R=0.082 L atm mol^-1 K^-1, T=273 K]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (1 set)
  • A. 26.02
  • B. 2.518
  • C. 2.602
  • D. 25.18

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Fe2+, Mn2+
  • B. O2−, F−
  • C. Na+, Mg2+
  • D. Mn2+, Fe3+

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (2 sets)
  • A. Fe2+, Mn2+
  • B. O2-, F-
  • C. Na+, Mg2+
  • D. Mn2+, Fe3+

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Q91 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Consider the decarboxylation reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical: CH3CH2COO-Na+ + NaOH (x) -> CH3CH3 + Na2CO3
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (1 set)
  • A. DIBAL-H
  • B. B2H6
  • C. Red Phosphorus
  • D. CaO

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Q91 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
CH3CH2COO-Na+ + NaOH, Heat -> CH3CH3 + Na2CO3. Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (1 set)
  • A. DIBAL-H
  • B. B2H6
  • C. Red Phosphorus
  • D. CaO

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Q92 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. NO2
  • B. POCl3
  • C. CH2O
  • D. SbCl5

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Q92 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. NO2
  • B. POCl3
  • C. CH2O
  • D. SbCl5

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Q93 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The slope of Arrhenius Plot ln k v/s 1/T of first order reaction is −5×10^3 K. The value of Ea of the reaction is. [Given R=8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. −83 kJ mol^-1
  • B. 41.5 kJ mol^-1
  • C. 83.0 kJ mol^-1
  • D. 166 kJ mol^-1

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Q93 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The slope of Arrhenius Plot ln k v/s 1/T of first order reaction is -5×10^3 K. The value of Ea of the reaction is. [Given R=8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. -83 kJ mol^-1
  • B. 41.5 kJ mol^-1
  • C. 83.0 kJ mol^-1
  • D. 166 kJ mol^-1

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Q94 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List - I with List - II regarding environmental chemistry.
  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

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Q95 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Match List - I with List - II based on name reactions.
  • A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  • C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  • D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

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Q96 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Match List - I (Complexes) with List - II (Magnetic Moment in BM).
  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

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Q98 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing oxidizing power
  • B. HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
  • C. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values
  • D. NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic character

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Q99 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm^2 mol^-1. Given Lambda infinity (H+) = 350 and Lambda infinity (CH3COO-) = 50. What is the dissociation constant?
  • A. 2.50×10^-5 mol L^-1
  • B. 1.75×10^-4 mol L^-1
  • C. 2.50×10^-4 mol L^-1
  • D. 1.75×10^-5 mol L^-1

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Match List - I with List - II.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (1 set)
  • A. (1)(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
  • B. (2)(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
  • C. (3)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
  • D. (4)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
  • B. Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
  • C. Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
  • D. The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Safety testing
  • B. Biopiracy
  • C. Gene therapy
  • D. Molecular diagnosis

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Safety testing
  • B. Biopiracy
  • C. Gene therapy
  • D. Molecular diagnosis

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Polysaccharides
  • B. RNA
  • C. DNA
  • D. Histones

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Polysaccharides
  • B. RNA
  • C. DNA
  • D. Histones

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List - I with List - II regarding plant tissue culture.
  • A. (1)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
  • B. (2)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
  • C. (3)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
  • D. (4)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency (b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato (c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones (d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. (1)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
  • B. (2)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
  • C. (3)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
  • D. (4)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Acrocentric
  • B. Metacentric
  • C. Telocentric
  • D. None of these

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Acrocentric
  • B. Metacentric
  • C. Telocentric
  • D. Sub-metacentric

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Genetic drift
  • B. Natural selection
  • C. Genetic recombination
  • D. Mutation

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
  • B. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
  • C. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
  • D. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Predation
  • B. Resource partitioning
  • C. Competitive release
  • D. Mutualism

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
  • B. 8-nucleate and 7-celled
  • C. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
  • D. 7-nucleate and 7-celled

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is :
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  • A. Leaf
  • B. Shoot apex
  • C. Stem
  • D. Axillary bud

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following plants is monoecious ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (1 set)
  • A. Cycas circinalis
  • B. Carica papaya
  • C. Chara
  • D. Marchantia polymorpha

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in chromosome (b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus (c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria (d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. (1)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
  • B. (2)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
  • C. (3)(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
  • D. (4)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid phase (b) Adhesion (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules (c) Surface tension (iii) Water loss in liquid phase (d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. (1)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
  • B. (2)(ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
  • C. (3)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
  • D. (4)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Match List - I with List - II. (a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen (b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition (c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases (d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. (1)(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
  • B. (2)(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
  • C. (3)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
  • D. (4)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Cleistogamy
  • B. Xenogamy
  • C. Geitonogamy
  • D. Chasmogamy

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Detection of gene mutation
  • B. Molecular diagnosis
  • C. Gene amplification
  • D. Purification of isolated protein

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Net square
  • B. Bullet square
  • C. Punch square
  • D. Punnett square

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Net square
  • B. Bullet square
  • C. Punch square
  • D. Punnett square

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Blue-green algae
  • B. Green algae
  • C. Brown algae
  • D. Red algae

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Blue-green algae
  • B. Green algae
  • C. Brown algae
  • D. Red algae

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Amensalism can be represented as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Species A (1) ; Species B (0)
  • B. Species A (−) ; Species B (0)
  • C. Species A (1) ; Species B (1)
  • D. Species A (−) ; Species B (−)

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Amensalism can be represented as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Species A (1) ; Species B (0)
  • B. Species A (−) ; Species B (0)
  • C. Species A (1) ; Species B (1)
  • D. Species A (−) ; Species B (−)

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Telophase II
  • B. Metaphase I
  • C. Metaphase II
  • D. Anaphase II

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (11 sets)
  • A. Telophase II
  • B. Metaphase I
  • C. Metaphase II
  • D. Anahase II

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
  • B. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
  • C. (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
  • D. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
  • B. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
  • C. (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
  • D. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (4 sets)
  • A. Zeatin
  • B. Kinetin
  • C. Infrared rays
  • D. Gamma rays

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. Zeatin
  • B. Kinetin
  • C. Infrared rays
  • D. Gamma rays

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
In the equation GPP−R=NPP, R represents :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Respiration losses
  • B. Radiant energy
  • C. Retardation factor
  • D. Environment factor

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Q125 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Maturity
  • B. Elasticity
  • C. Flexibility
  • D. Plasticity

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. IBA
  • B. IAA
  • C. NAA
  • D. 2, 4-D

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
  • B. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
  • C. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
  • D. Pyramid of energy is always upright.

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Gemmae are present in :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Some Liverworts
  • B. Mosses
  • C. Pteridophytes
  • D. Some Gymnosperms

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Phosphoglyceric acid
  • B. Pyruvic acid
  • C. Oxaloacetic acid
  • D. Succinic acid

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Ulothrix
  • B. Ectocarpus
  • C. Gracilaria
  • D. Volvox

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Q131 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Bright blue bands
  • B. Yellow bands
  • C. Bright orange bands
  • D. Dark red bands

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
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  • A. China rose and citrus
  • B. China rose
  • C. Citrus
  • D. Pea

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Q133 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. Rubber, gums
  • B. Morphine, codeine
  • C. Amino acids, glucose
  • D. Vinblastin, curcumin

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Q134 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Standing crop
  • B. Climax
  • C. Climax community
  • D. Standing state

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Heterosporous
  • B. Homosorus
  • C. Heterosorus
  • D. Homosporous

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability.
  • B. it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
  • C. the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.
  • D. it will lead to lysis of host cell.

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Q137 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
  • B. Poaceae ; Rosaceae
  • C. Poaceae ; Leguminosae
  • D. Poaceae ; Solanaceae

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Q138 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Identify the correct statement.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
  • B. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA.
  • C. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
  • D. The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following statements is correct ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
  • B. Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
  • C. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
  • D. Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following statements is correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
  • B. Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
  • C. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
  • D. Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Polymorphic DNA
  • B. Satellite DNA
  • C. Repetitive DNA
  • D. Single nucleotides

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Polymorphic DNA
  • B. Satellite DNA
  • C. Repetitive DNA
  • D. Single nucleotides

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.
  • B. During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
  • C. In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH+H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
  • D. ATP is synthesized through complex V.

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Q143 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
  • B. Both ATP and NADPH+H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
  • C. Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
  • D. Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.

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Q145 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (7 sets)
  • A. Transcribes only snRNAs
  • B. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
  • C. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
  • D. Transcribes precursor of mRNA

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Q146 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
In the exponential growth equation Nt = Noert, e represents :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. The base of geometric logarithms
  • B. The base of number logarithms
  • C. The base of exponential logarithms
  • D. The base of natural logarithms

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (6 sets)
  • A. mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it.
  • B. mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
  • C. mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.
  • D. mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it.

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Zona pellucida
  • B. Corona radiata
  • C. Vitelline membrane
  • D. Perivitelline space

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Zona pellucida
  • B. Corona radiata
  • C. Vitelline membrane
  • D. Perivitelline space

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Q152 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Pachytene
  • B. Leptotene
  • C. Zygotene
  • D. Diakinesis

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Q152 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Pachytene
  • B. Leptotene
  • C. Zygotene
  • D. Diakinesis

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Q153 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
  • B. Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
  • C. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
  • D. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes

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Q153 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
  • B. Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
  • C. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
  • D. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

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Q154 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Poly(A) tail sequences
  • B. Degenerate primer sequence
  • C. Okazaki sequences
  • D. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

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Q155 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
  • B. High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
  • C. Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
  • D. High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature

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Q156 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match the following : (a) Physalia, (b) Limulus, (c) Ancylostoma, (d) Pinctada
  • A. (1)(i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
  • B. (2)(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
  • C. (3)(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
  • D. (4)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)

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Q157 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Troposphere
  • B. CFCs
  • C. Stratosphere
  • D. Ozone

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Q158 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. House fly
  • B. Fire fly
  • C. Grasshopper
  • D. Cockroach

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Q159 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Veneral diseases can spread through : (a) Using sterile needles (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (c) Infected mother to foetus (d) Kissing (e) Inheritance
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (2 sets)
  • A. (1)(a) and (c) only
  • B. (2)(a), (b) and (c) only
  • C. (3)(b), (c) and (d) only
  • D. (4)(b) and (c) only

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Q160 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. DNase
  • B. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
  • C. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
  • D. DNA Ligase

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Q161 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Match List - I (Methods) with List - II (Mechanisms): (a) Vaults (b) IUDs (c) Vasectomy (d) Tubectomy
  • A. (1)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
  • B. (2)(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
  • C. (3)(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
  • D. (4)(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)

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Q162 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List - I (Microbes) with List - II (Products): (a) Aspergillus niger (b) Acetobacter aceti (c) Clostridium butylicum (d) Lactobacillus
  • A. (1)(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
  • B. (2)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
  • C. (3)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
  • D. (4)(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)

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Q163 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Identify the incorrect pair.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (5 sets)
  • A. Drugs - Ricin
  • B. Alkaloids - Codeine
  • C. Toxin - Abrin
  • D. Lectins - Concanavalin A

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Q164 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
  • B. pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
  • C. pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
  • D. pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
  • B. Ileo-caecal junction
  • C. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
  • D. Gastro-oesophageal junction

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
  • B. Ileo-caecal junction
  • C. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
  • D. Gastro-oesophageal junction

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. siRNA
  • B. mRNA
  • C. tRNA
  • D. rRNA

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (3 sets)
  • A. siRNA
  • B. mRNA
  • C. tRNA
  • D. rRNA

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Q167 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Succus entericus is referred to as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Chyme
  • B. Pancreatic juice
  • C. Intestinal juice
  • D. Gastric juice

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Q167 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Succus entericus is referred to as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Chyme
  • B. Pancreatic juice
  • C. Intestinal juice
  • D. Gastric juice

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Q168 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
  • B. Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
  • C. Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
  • D. Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs

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Q168 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (10 sets)
  • A. Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
  • B. Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
  • C. Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
  • D. Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs

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Q169 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
  • B. A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
  • C. Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
  • D. In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital pouch.

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Q170 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
  • B. These muscle have no striations
  • C. They are involuntary muscles
  • D. Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs

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Q171 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Ornithorhynchus
  • B. Neophron
  • C. Hemidactylus
  • D. Macropus

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (8 sets)
  • A. T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
  • B. T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
  • C. T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
  • D. T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20

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Q173 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Thrombokinase
  • B. Thrombin
  • C. Renin
  • D. Epinephrine

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Q174 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. 100%
  • B. 50%
  • C. 75%
  • D. 25%

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Q175 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (7 sets)
  • A. Multiload 375
  • B. CuT
  • C. LNG 20
  • D. Cu 7

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Q176 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. G2 phase
  • B. S-phase
  • C. Prophase
  • D. Metaphase

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Q177 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2021 (9 sets)
  • A. Gout
  • B. Arthritis
  • C. Muscular dystrophy
  • D. Myasthenia gravis

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