NEET-SET1-2022 — NEET 2022 Question Paper with Solutions

Q1 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves

Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Electromagnetic waves) (a) AM radio waves (b) Microwaves (c) Infrared radiations (d) X-rays List-II (Wavelength) (i) $10^{-10}$ m (ii) $10^{2}$ m (iii) $10^{-2}$ m (iv) $10^{-4}$ m Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
C. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
D. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 $\Omega$ is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is

A. 1 weber
B. Zero weber
C. 2 weber
D. 0.5 weber

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion

The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is

A. 4 : 1
B. 1 : $\sqrt{2}$
C. 2 : 1
D. $\sqrt{2}$ : 1

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is

A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 0°
D. 45°

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

Plane angle and solid angle have

A. No units and no dimensions
B. Both units and dimensions
C. Units but no dimensions
D. Dimensions but no units

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

Two resistors of resistance, 100 $\Omega$ and 200 $\Omega$ are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 $\Omega$ to that in 200 $\Omega$ in a given time is

A. 1 : 4
B. 4 : 1
C. 1 : 2
D. 2 : 1

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Q7 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to

A. $\sqrt{2}$ times the rms value of the ac source
B. 1/$\sqrt{2}$ times the rms value of the ac source
C. The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
D. The rms value of the ac source

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Q8 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves

The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is

A. 36 $\times 10^5$ J
B. 1 $\times 10^5$ J
C. 36 $\times 10^7$ J
D. 36 $\times 10^4$ J

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be

A. 60 Hz
B. 120 Hz
C. Zero
D. 30 Hz

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Q10 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is

A. 1 : $\sqrt{2}$
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 1
D. $\sqrt{2}$ : 1

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Q11 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. 1:3:5:7
B. 1:1:1:1
C. 1:2:3:4
D. 1:4:9:16

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Q12 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

Let $T_1$ and $T_2$ be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atom, respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio $T_1 : T_2$ is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. 4 : 9
B. 9 : 4
C. 1 : 4
D. 4 : 1

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Q13 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is

A. 20 N/kg
B. 180 N/kg
C. 0.05 N/kg
D. 50 N/kg

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

Two hollow conducting spheres of radii $R_1$ and $R_2$ ($R_1 >> R_2$) have equal charges. The potential would be

A. Equal on both the spheres
B. Dependent on the material property of the sphere
C. More on bigger sphere
D. More on smaller sphere

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance

A. Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
B. Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors
C. Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
D. Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors

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Q16 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

A biconvex lens has radii of curvature 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is

A. +5 D
B. Infinity
C. +2 D
D. +20 D

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 20: Experimental Skills

The dimensions $[MLT^{-2}A^{-2}]$ belong to the

A. Magnetic permeability
B. Electric permittivity
C. Magnetic flux
D. Self Inductance

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble

A. Remains the same
B. Is equal to the atmospheric pressure
C. Decreases
D. Increases

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Q19 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is

A. 12.56 x 10^-4 T
B. 6.28 x 10^-4 T
C. 6.28 x 10^-2 T
D. 12.56 x 10^-2 T

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Q20 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of $30^\circ$ and $45^\circ$ with the x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is

A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : $\sqrt{3}$
C. $\sqrt{3}$ : 1
D. 1 : 1

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Q21 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in

A. Circuit (c) only
B. Both circuits (a) and (c)
C. Circuit (a) only
D. Circuit (b) only

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Q22 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is

A. 9
B. 12
C. 6
D. 8

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Q23 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is

A. C
B. D
C. A
D. B

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Q24 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 $\text{ms}^{-1}$. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : ($g = 10 \text{ms}^{-2}$)

A. 34500
B. 23500
C. 23000
D. 20000

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength ($\lambda$) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad $\text{s}^{-1}$. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is $2 \times 10^{-5} \text{T}$ and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 $\Omega$, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be

A. 1 A
B. 2 A
C. 0.25 A
D. 1.5 A

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Q27 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

Two point charges -q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R (R >> L) varies as:

A. $\frac{1}{R^4}$
B. $\frac{1}{R^3}$
C. $\frac{1}{R^2}$
D. $\frac{1}{R^3}$

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 $\mu\text{F}$, resistance 50 $\Omega$ is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is $\nu_0$ and the frequency of the ac source is $\nu$, then

A. $\nu_0 = \frac{50}{\pi} \text{Hz}, \nu = 50 \text{Hz}$
B. $\nu = 100 \text{Hz}; \nu_0 = \frac{100}{\pi} \text{Hz}$
C. $\nu_0 = \nu = 50 \text{Hz}$
D. $\nu_0 = \nu = \frac{50}{\pi} \text{Hz}$

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases

The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is

A. $5.6 \times 10^{-3} \text{m}^3$
B. $5.6 \text{m}^3$
C. $5.6 \times 10^6 \text{m}^3$
D. $5.6 \times 10^3 \text{m}^3$

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

Match the items in List I with the appropriate physical quantity in List II: | List I | List II | | :--- | :--- | | (a) Gravitational constant (G) | (i) $[L^2 T^{-2}]$ | | (b) Gravitational potential energy | (ii) $[M^{-1} L^3 T^{-2}]$ | | (c) Gravitational potential | (iii) $[L T^{-2}]$ | | (d) Gravitational intensity | (iv) $[M L^2 T^{-2}]$ |

A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

The area of a rectangular field (in $m^2$) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is:

A. 1382.5
B. $14 \times 10^2$
C. $138 \times 10^1$
D. 1382

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is:

A. $2.25 \times 10^{-6} \, J$
B. $4.5 \times 10^{-6} \, J$
C. $1.5 \times 10^{-6} \, J$
D. $3.25 \times 10^{-6} \, J$

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:

A. 10
B. 8
C. 11
D. 9

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Q34 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is:

A. 5:4
B. 25:16
C. 1:1
D. 4:5

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Q35 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are $1.5 \times 10^8 \, m/s$ and $2.0 \times 10^8 \, m/s$, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is:

A. $\tan^{-1}(0.500)$
B. $\tan^{-1}(0.750)$
C. $\sin^{-1}(0.500)$
D. $\sin^{-1}(0.750)$

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Q36 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is:

A. A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with $1/r$ dependence for the outside region.
B. A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing one for the outside region.
C. Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
D. A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for the outside region.

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Q37 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. (A) is true but (R) is false
B. (A) is false but (R) is true
C. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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Q38 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. $SF_4$
B. $XeF_2$
C. $ClF_3$
D. $IF_5$

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Q39 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?

A. Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling respectively
B. Thermosetting polymers are reusable
C. Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces
D. Fibers possess high tensile strength

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Q40 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton's Law of partial pressure? Here $p$ = total pressure of gaseous mixture.

A. $p = p1 + p2 + p3$
B. $p = n1 + n2 + n3 \frac{RT}{V}$
C. $P_i = \chi_i p$
D. $p_i = \chi_i p_i^\circ$ where $p_i^\circ$ is pressure of $i^{th}$ gas in pure state.

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Q41 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Primary aliphatic amines react with $HNO_2$ to give unstable diazonium salts. Statement II: Primary aromatic amines react with $HNO_2$ to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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Q42 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is:

A. Enzymes are polysaccharides.
B. Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
C. Enzymes are biocatalysts.
D. Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.

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Q43 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells. Reason (R): In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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Q44 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order: $H_2O < H_2S < H_2Se < H_2Te$. Statement II: The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q45 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): ICl is more reactive than $I_2$. Reason (R): I-Cl bond is weaker than I-I bond. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

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Q46 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of:

A. high electronegativity
B. high basic character
C. small size
D. high exchange enthalpy

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Q47 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of $Cu^{2+}/Cu$, $Zn^{2+}/Zn$, $Fe^{2+}/Fe$ and $Ag^{+}/Ag$ are 0.34 V, -0.76 V, -0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively. On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?

A. $FeSO_4(aq) + Zn(s) \rightarrow ZnSO_4(aq) + Fe(s)$
B. $2CuSO_4(aq) + 2Ag(s) \rightarrow 2Cu(s) + Ag_2SO_4(aq)$
C. $CuSO_4(aq) + Zn(s) \rightarrow ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu(s)$
D. $CuSO_4(aq) + Fe(s) \rightarrow FeSO_4(aq) + Cu(s)$

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Q48 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure

Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

A. In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.
B. The shapes of $d_{xy}, d_{yz}$ and $d_{zx}$ orbitals are similar to each other; and $d_{x^2-y^2}$ and $d_{z^2}$ are similar to each other.
C. All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
D. All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.

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Q49 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

The IUPAC name of the complex $[Ag(H_2O)_2][Ag(CN)_2]$ is:

A. dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)
B. diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
C. dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
D. diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)

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Q50 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

Given below are half cell reactions: $MnO_4^{-} + 8H^{+} + 5e^{-} \rightarrow Mn^{2+} + 4H_2O$, $E^0 = 1.51 V$ $2O_2 + 2H^{+} + 2e^{-} \rightarrow H_2O$, $E^0 = +1.223 V$ Will the permanganate ion, $MnO_4^{-}$, liberate $O_2$ from water in the presence of an acid?

A. Yes, because $E^0_{cell} = +2.733 V$
B. No, because $E^0_{cell} = -2.733 V$
C. Yes, because $E^0_{cell} = +0.287 V$
D. No, because $E^0_{cell} = -0.287 V$

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Q51 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

What mass of 95% pure $CaCO_3$ will be required to neutralise 50 ml of 0.5 M $HCl$ solution according to the following reaction? $CaCO_3(s) + 2HCl(aq) \rightarrow CaCl_2(aq) + CO_2(g) + H_2O(l)$ [Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

A. 3.65 g
B. 9.50 g
C. 1.25 g
D. 1.32 g

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Q52 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

The incorrect statement regarding chirality is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other
B. A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
C. $S_N1$ reaction yields 1:1 mixture of both enantiomers
D. The product obtained by $S_N2$ reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion of configuration

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Q53 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. 100 ml of solvent
B. 1000 g of solvent
C. 500 ml of solvent
D. 500 g of solvent

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Q54 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. $H_2^{+}$ ion has one electron
B. $O_2^{+}$ ion is diamagnetic
C. The bond orders of $O_2^{+}, O_2, O_2^{-}$ and $O_2^{2-}$ are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
D. $C_2$ molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate $\pi$ molecular orbitals

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Q55 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Match List-I with List-II.

A. Cyanohydrin, Acetal, Schiff's base, Oxime
B. (i) NH2OH, (ii) RNH2, (iii) alcohol, (iv) HCN
C. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
D. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Choose the correct statement:

A. Diamond is $sp^3$ hybridised and graphite is $sp^2$ hybridised.
B. Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
C. Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
D. Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole-dipole interactions. Statement II: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

The pH of the solution containing 50 ml each of 0.10M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]

A. 4.57
B. 2.57
C. 5.57
D. 3.57

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Q59 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Identify the incorrect statement from the following

A. Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.
B. Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
C. Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
D. The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.

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Q60 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?

A. The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.
B. Both the Boron atoms are $sp^2$ hybridised.
C. There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
D. The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.

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Q61 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

For the reaction $3O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2O_3(g)$ at 298 K, $K_c$ is found to be $3.0 \times 10^{-59}$. If the concentration of $O_2$ at equilibrium is $0.040\text{ M}$, then concentration of $O_3$ in M is:

A. $2.4 \times 10^{31}$
B. $1.2 \times 10^{21}$
C. $4.38 \times 10^{-32}$
D. $1.9 \times 10^{-63}$

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Q62 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway?

A. The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming
B. Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement
C. Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells
D. The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane

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Q63 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to:

A. secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
B. deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.
C. deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.
D. deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.

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Q64 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?

A. Both the interacting species are negatively impacted
B. It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance
C. It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
D. It might lead to extinction of a species

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Q65 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

The flowers are Zygomorphic in: (a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly

A. (1) (d), (e) Only
B. (2) (c), (d), (e) Only
C. (3) (a), (b), (c) Only
D. (4) (b), (c) Only

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Q66 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as:

A. Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA
B. The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
C. The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
D. The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

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Q67 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?

A. Allium cepa
B. Solanum nigrum
C. Colchicum autumnale
D. Pisum sativum

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Q68 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:

A. Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
B. Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
C. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
D. Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination

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Q69 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants:

A. Ethylene
B. Cytokinin
C. ABA
D. Gibberellin

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Q70 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements: (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active (c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix

A. (1) (b), (e) Only
B. (2) (a), (c), (e) Only
C. (3) (b), (d), (e) Only
D. (4) (a), (c), (d) Only

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Q71 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:

A. Chitin
B. Glucosamine
C. Cutin
D. Cellulose

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Q72 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:

A. Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing
B. Translation
C. Genetic mapping
D. DNA finger printing

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Q73 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?

A. About 10%
B. Less than 7%
C. Approximately 15%
D. More than 18%

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Q74 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is:

A. Electrostatic Precipitator
B. Catalytic Converter
C. STP
D. Incinerator

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Q75 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Match List-I with List-II List-I (a) Manganese, (b) Magnesium, (c) Boron, (d) Iron List-II (i) Activates the enzyme catalase, (ii) Required for pollen germination, (iii) Activates enzymes of respiration, (iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
B. (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
C. (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
D. (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

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Q76 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

XO type of sex determination can be found in:

A. Grasshoppers
B. Monkeys
C. Drosophila
D. Birds

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Q77 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

"Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:

A. for both water and food transportation
B. osmosis is observed
C. water is transported
D. food is transported

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Q78 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?

A. Rhodospirillum
B. Beijerinckia
C. Rhizobium
D. Frankia

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Q79 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

A. The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
B. Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
C. The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.
D. The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.

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Q80 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q81 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?

A. Buttercup
B. Maize
C. Cotton
D. Coriander

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Q82 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:

A. Biodiversity loss
B. Natality
C. Population explosion
D. Competition

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Q83 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous. Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q84 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes:

A. Sites at which crossing over occurs
B. Terminalization
C. Synaptonemal complex
D. Bivalent

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Q85 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q86 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Rhodophyceae only
B. Phaeophyceae only
C. Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
D. Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

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Q87 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following events during meiosis characterizes: (1) Sites at which crossing over occurs (2) Terminalization (3) Synaptonemal complex (4) Bivalent

A. Sites at which crossing over occurs
B. Terminalization
C. Synaptonemal complex
D. Bivalent

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Q88 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Read the following statements about the vascular bundles: (a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii. (b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium. (c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem. (d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem. (e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d) Only
B. (a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
C. (a), (b) and (d) Only
D. (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only

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Q89 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

A. Porphyra - Floridean Starch
B. Volvox - Starch
C. Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
D. Ulothrix - Mannitol

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Q90 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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Q91 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?

A. Two (2)
B. Eight
C. Four
D. Six

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Q92 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:

A. help overcome apical dominance
B. kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields
C. speed up the malting process
D. promote root growth and root hair formation to increase the absorption surface

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Q93 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells. Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo enzyme. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q94 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?

A. Micropropagation
B. Cryopreservation
C. In vitro fertilization
D. National Parks

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Q95 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

A. Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
B. Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane
C. Breakdown of proton gradient
D. Breakdown of electron gradient

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Q96 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

A. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
B. Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
C. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
D. Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles

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Q97 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Mendel's law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome. Reason (R): Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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Q98 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

A. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
B. Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
C. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
D. Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles

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Q99 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?

A. It is cheaper than diesel
B. It cannot be adulterated like diesel
C. CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
D. The same diesel engine is used in CNG buses making the cost of conversion low

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Q100 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements: (a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid (b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more $C=C$ bonds (c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents (e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

A. (c), (d) and (e) only
B. (a), (b) and (d) only
C. (a), (b) and (c) only
D. (a), (d) and (e) only

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Transposons can be used during which one of the following?

A. Autoradiography
B. Gene sequencing
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
D. Gene Silencing

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood. (a) It is also called as the earlywood (b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels (c) It is lighter in colour (d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings (e) It has lower density Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (a), (b) and (d) Only
B. (c), (d) and (e) Only
C. (a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
D. (a), (c), (d) and (e) Only

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (-) for another species involved in the interaction?

A. Commensalism
B. Competition
C. Predation
D. Amensalism

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait?

A. Haemophilia
B. Thalessemia
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Myotonic dystrophy

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?

A. Weathering of rocks
B. Rain fall and storms
C. Burning of fossil fuels
D. Volcanic activity

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. 5'CTCAGT3'; 3'GAGTCA5'
B. 5'GTATTC3'; 3'CATAAG5'
C. 5'GATACT3'; 3'CTATGA5'
D. 5'GAATTC3'; 3'CTTAAG5'

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature
B. To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity
C. To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway
D. To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments; the methodology adopted by him is called as:

A. Expressed sequence tags
B. Bioinformatics
C. Sequence annotation
D. Gene mapping

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments: the methodology adopted by him is called as:

A. Expressed sequence tags
B. Bioinformatics
C. Sequence annotation
D. Gene mapping

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Match List-I with List-II.

A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Addition of more solutes in a given solution will:

A. make its water potential zero
B. not affect the water potential at all
C. raise its water potential
D. lower its water potential

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:

A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?

A. Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature
B. Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2
C. It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
D. Inhaled air is humidified

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Q114 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6, then what is the formula for maltose?

A. C12H22O11
B. C12H24O11
C. C12H20O10
D. C12H24O12

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures. Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

A. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

In an E Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. z, y, a genes will not be translated
B. RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
C. Only z gene will get transcribed
D. z, y, a genes will be transcribed

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures. Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

A. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Tegmina in cockroach arises from:

A. Metathorax
B. Prothorax and Mesothorax
C. Prothorax
D. Mesothorax

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

A. In prokaryotes only RER are present
B. SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
C. RER has ribosomes attached to ER
D. SER is devoid of ribosomes

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

In-situ conservation refers to:

A. Conserve only endangered species
B. Conserve only extinct species
C. Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
D. Conserve only high-risk species

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:

A. Lymphocytes from patient's blood are grown in culture, outside the body.
B. Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
C. Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.
D. Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages.

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?

A. Areolar tissue
B. Smooth muscle
C. Intercalated discs
D. Cartilage

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Q125 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?

A. Lubrication of oral cavity
B. Digestion of disaccharides
C. Control bacterial population in mouth
D. Digestion of complex carbohydrates

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.

A. 1.0
B. zero
C. 0.1
D. 10

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to:

A. Disruptive change
B. Random change
C. Stabilising change
D. Directional change

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A:

A. Aspergillus niger
B. Streptococcus cerevisiae
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Clostridium butylicum

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Cartilage
B. Neuroglia
C. Blood
D. Adipose tissue

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Birth
B. Adult
C. Puberty
D. Embryonic development stage

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Q131 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Bio-fortification
B. Bio-accumulation
C. Bio-magnification
D. Bio-remediation

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis? (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary (e) It is initiated at puberty Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. (b), (d) and (e) only
B. (b), (c) and (e) only
C. (c) and (e) only
D. (b) and (c) only

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:

A. Non-Medicated IUD
B. Copper releasing IUD
C. Cervical barrier
D. Vault barrier

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Q134 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:

A. Humification
B. Decomposition
C. Catabolism
D. Fragmentation

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?

A. Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
B. Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
C. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
D. Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium:

A. Gemmules
B. Buds
C. Zoospores
D. Conidia

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Q137 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ---- ml of O2 to the tissues.

A. 4 ml
B. 10 ml
C. 2 ml
D. 5 ml

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Q138 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood. Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

A. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

A. Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
B. Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II
C. There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
D. DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II

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Q141 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?

A. 3.3 X 10^6 bp
B. 6.6 X 10^6 bp
C. 3.3 x 10^9 bp
D. 6.6 x 10^9 bp

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:

A. Chromosomes decondense at telophase
B. Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase
C. All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase
D. Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes

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Q143 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:

A. Hippocampus
B. Pavo
C. Ornithorhynchus
D. Salamandra

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Q144 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?

A. Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
B. Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
C. Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
D. Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

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Q145 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Myasthenia gravis - Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
B. Muscular dystrophy - An autoimmune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
C. Arthritis - Inflamed joints
D. Tetany - High Ca^2+ level causing rapid spasms

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Q146 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?

A. Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
B. Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
C. Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
D. Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation. Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q149 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size. Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q150 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions. List-I (a) Diaphragms, (b) Contraceptive Pills, (c) Intra Uterine Devices, (d) Lactational Amenorrhea. List-II (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation, (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus, (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition, (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms.

A. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
B. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
C. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
D. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which of the following is a correct statement?

A. Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
B. Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall.
C. Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera.
D. Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.

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Q152 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.
B. Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
C. Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
D. Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.

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Q153 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone? (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption (b) Decreases Ca^{2+} level in blood (c) Reabsorption of Ca^{2+} by renal tubules (d) Decreases the absorption of Ca^{2+} from digested food (e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. (a) and (e) only
B. (b) and (c) only
C. (a) and (c) only
D. (b), (d) and (e) only

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Q154 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Match List-I with List-II: List-I (a) Bronchioles, (b) Goblet Cell, (c) Tendons, (d) Adipose Tissue List-II (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue, (ii) Loose Connective Tissue, (iii) Glandular Tissue, (iv) Ciliated Epithelium

A. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
B. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
C. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
D. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

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Q155 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Homology indicates common ancestry
B. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
C. Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
D. Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy

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Q156 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles. Statement II: Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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Q157 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Match List-I (Biological Molecules) with List-II (Biological functions): (a) Glycogen, (b) Globulin, (c) Steroids, (d) Thrombin (i) Hormone, (ii) Biocatalyst, (iii) Antibody, (iv) Storage product

A. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
B. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
C. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
D. (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

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Q158 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Ten E. coli cells with ^{15}N-dsDNA are incubated in medium containing ^{14}N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E. coli cells will have DNA totally free from ^{15}N?

A. 60 cells
B. 80 cells
C. 20 cells
D. 40 cells

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Q159 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide. (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E. coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them. (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs. (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone. (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. (c) and (d) only
B. (c), (d) and (e) only
C. (a), (b) and (d) only
D. (b) only

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Q160 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which one of the following statements is correct?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
B. Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
C. The atria-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
D. The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria

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Q161 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. Presence of single restriction enzyme site
B. Presence of two or more recognition sites
C. Presence of origin of replication
D. Presence of a marker gene

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Q162 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?

A. 75%
B. 100%
C. 25%
D. 50%

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Q163 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?

A. a, b, c, d
B. a, c, b, d
C. a, d, b, c
D. d, b, a, c

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Q164 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:

A. Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters.
B. Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
C. The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
D. Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index $\sqrt{3}$, at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be

A. 90°
B. 120°
C. 30°
D. 60°

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. $ ext{CH}_3 ext{CH}_3$
B. $ ext{C}_{12} ext{H}_{24} ext{O}_{12}$

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Q91 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K: $Ni(s) + 2Ag^+(0.001M) \rightarrow Ni^{2+}(0.001M) + 2Ag(s)$. (Given that $E^\circ_{cell} = 1.05\text{ V}$, $\frac{RT}{F} \ln(10) = 0.059$ at 298 K)

A. 0.9615 V
B. 1.05 V
C. 1.0385 V
D. 1.385 V

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Q92 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, $\text{KMnO}_4$ oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2022 (1 set)

A. +7 to +3
B. +6 to +5
C. +7 to +4
D. +6 to +4

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