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NEET-E1-2023

176 questions from this NEET 2023 paper. Log in to view the correct answer and explanation for each question.

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Q1 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 2W/A
  • B. W/A
  • C. W/2A
  • D. Zero

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 3 : 5
  • B. 5 : 3
  • C. 2 : 5
  • D. 5 : 2

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is :
Question 3 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 2 µF
  • B. 3 µF
  • C. 6 µF
  • D. 9 µF

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
If $\oint_s \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{S} = 0$ over a surface, then :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.
  • B. the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.
  • C. all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.
  • D. the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored in it will be :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 2U
  • B. 4U
  • C. 8U
  • D. 16U

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. A centre-tapped transformer
  • B. p-n junction diodes
  • C. Capacitor
  • D. Load resistance

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Q13 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 µH carrying a current of 2 A is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 4 µJ
  • B. 4 mJ
  • C. 8 mJ
  • D. 8 µJ

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. along the radius, away from centre
  • B. along the radius towards the centre
  • C. along the tangent to its position
  • D. along the axis of rotation

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327° C. The temperature of the sink is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 27° C
  • B. 15° C
  • C. 100° C
  • D. 200° C

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Q16 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G = gravitational constant) :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. -8Gm/R
  • B. -12Gm/R
  • C. -16Gm/R
  • D. -20Gm/R

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining distance with speed 2v. Its average speed is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. v/3
  • B. 2v/3
  • C. 4v/3
  • D. 3v/4

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly : (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m$^{-1}$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 30.16 x 10$^{-4}$ J
  • B. 5.06 x 10$^{-4}$ J
  • C. 3.01 x 10$^{-4}$ J
  • D. 50.1 x 10$^{-4}$ J

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Q19 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is proportional to:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (2 sets)
  • A. $\sqrt{V}$
  • B. $\frac{1}{V}$
  • C. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{V}}$
  • D. $V^2$

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Q20 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to $\frac{1}{16}$ of its initial value?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 20 minutes
  • B. 40 minutes
  • C. 60 minutes
  • D. 80 minutes

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Q21 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A metal wire has mass $(0.4 \pm 0.002) \text{ g}$, radius $(0.3 \pm 0.001) \text{ mm}$ and length $(5 \pm 0.02) \text{ cm}$. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 1.2%
  • B. 1.3%
  • C. 1.6%
  • D. 1.4%

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Q22 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of $2.0 \times 10^{10} \text{ Hz}$ and amplitude $48 \text{ Vm}^{-1}$. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is : (Speed of light in free space = $3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1}$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. $1.6 \times 10^{-9} \text{ T}$
  • B. $1.6 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$
  • C. $1.6 \times 10^{-7} \text{ T}$
  • D. $1.6 \times 10^{-6} \text{ T}$

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Q23 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
The temperature of a gas is -50° C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 669° C
  • B. 3295° C
  • C. 3097 K
  • D. 223 K

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Q24 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. capacitive reactance decreases.
  • B. displacement current increases.
  • C. displacement current decreases.
  • D. capacitive reactance remains constant

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below: Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant. Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is $\lambda$. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 2\lambda
  • B. 4\lambda
  • C. 9\lambda
  • D. 16\lambda

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 20: Experimental Skills
The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage supply are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (1 set)
  • A. Instrumental errors
  • B. Personal errors
  • C. Least count errors
  • D. Random errors

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 μF and resistance R is 100 Ω. The frequency at which resonance occurs is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 15.9 rad/s
  • B. 15.9 kHz
  • C. 1.59 rad/s
  • D. 1.59 kHz

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The venturi-meter works on:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Huygen's principle
  • B. Bernoulli's principle
  • C. The principle of parallel axes
  • D. The principle of perpendicular axes

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 1 : 2
  • B. 2 : 1
  • C. 1 : 3
  • D. 3 : 1

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity $2 \times 10^5 \text{ N C}^{-1}$. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 8 mC
  • B. 6 mC
  • C. 4 mC
  • D. 2 mC

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Q34 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Zero
  • B. Positive
  • C. Infinity
  • D. Negative

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Q35 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280 m s$^{-1}$ in the direction 30° above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the bullet is (g = 9.8 m s$^{-2}$, sin 30° = 0.5):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 2800 m
  • B. 2000 m
  • C. 1000 m
  • D. 3000 m

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Q36 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (f), but one is convex and the other one is concave. When they are placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Zero
  • B. f / 4
  • C. f / 2
  • D. Infinite

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Q37 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be:
Question 37 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. 10√2 Ω
  • B. 15 Ω
  • C. 5√5 Ω
  • D. 25 Ω

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Q38 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The x-t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is:
Question 38 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. $\frac{\pi^2}{8} \text{ m s}^{-2}$
  • B. $-\frac{\pi^2}{8} \text{ m s}^{-2}$
  • C. $\frac{\pi^2}{16} \text{ m s}^{-2}$
  • D. $-\frac{\pi^2}{16} \text{ m s}^{-2}$

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Q39 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure. The electric potential (in $10^2$ V) at point P due to the dipole is ($\epsilon_0$ = permittivity of free space and $\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} = K$):
Question 39 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (2 sets)
  • A. $(3/8)qK$
  • B. $(5/8)qK$
  • C. $(8/5)qK$
  • D. $(8/3)qK$

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Q40 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity u. When bullet travels 24 cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes u/3. Then it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is:
  • A. 27 cm
  • B. 24 cm
  • C. 28 cm
  • D. 30 cm

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Q41 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)?
Question 41 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. 40 cm
  • B. -40 cm
  • C. -100 cm
  • D. -50 cm

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Q42 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
For the following logic circuit, the truth table is:
Question 42 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. A=0, B=0, Y=1; A=0, B=1, Y=1; A=1, B=0, Y=1; A=1, B=1, Y=0
  • B. A=0, B=0, Y=0; A=0, B=1, Y=1; A=1, B=0, Y=1; A=1, B=1, Y=1
  • C. A=0, B=0, Y=1; A=0, B=1, Y=0; A=1, B=0, Y=1; A=1, B=1, Y=0
  • D. A=0, B=0, Y=0; A=0, B=1, Y=0; A=1, B=0, Y=0; A=1, B=1, Y=1

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Q43 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity 4 m s$^{-1}$. The ball strikes the water surface after 4 s. The height of bridge above water surface is (Take g = 10 m s$^{-2}$):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 56 m
  • B. 60 m
  • C. 64 m
  • D. 68 m

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Q44 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series to a battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased n times. The value of n is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 10
  • B. 100
  • C. 1
  • D. 1000

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Q45 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A wire carrying a current I along the positive x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field $\vec{B} = (2 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} - 4 \hat{k})$ T. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. 3 IL
  • B. √5 IL
  • C. 5 IL
  • D. √3 IL

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Q46 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period T. If d is the density of the earth and G is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity $\frac{3\pi}{Gd}$ represents:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. T
  • B. T^2
  • C. T^3
  • D. √T

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Q47 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15 (g = 10 m s$^{-2}$):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 1.2 m s$^{-2}$
  • B. 150 m s$^{-2}$
  • C. 1.5 m s$^{-2}$
  • D. 50 m s$^{-2}$

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Q48 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is 2 Ω and 6.8 Ω at 80°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. 3 x 10⁻⁴ °C⁻¹
  • B. 3 x 10⁻³ °C⁻¹
  • C. 3 x 10⁻² °C⁻¹
  • D. 3 x 10⁻¹ °C⁻¹

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Q48 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The resistance of platinum wire at $0^\circ\text{C}$ is $2\Omega$ and $6.8\Omega$ at $80^\circ\text{C}$. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. 3 \times 10^{-4} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}
  • B. 3 \times 10^{-3} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}
  • C. 3 \times 10^{-2} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}
  • D. 3 \times 10^{-1} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}

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Q49 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is $5.3 \times 10^{-11}$ m. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 0.53 Å
  • B. 1.06 Å
  • C. 1.59 Å
  • D. 4.77 Å

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Q51 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. CH_3CONH_2 \xrightarrow{Br_2 / KOH} Product
  • B. CH_3CN \xrightarrow{(i) LiAlH_4 (ii) H_3O^+} Product
  • C. CH_3NC \xrightarrow{(i) LiAlH_4 (ii) H_3O^+} Product
  • D. CH_3CONH_2 \xrightarrow{(i) LiAlH_4 (ii) H_3O^+} Product

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Q52 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Match List - I with List - II : List - I: A. Coke, B. Diamond, C. Fullerene, D. Graphite List - II: I. Carbon atoms are sp3 hybridised, II. Used as a dry lubricant, III. Used as a reducing agent, IV. Cage like molecules
  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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Q53 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Assertion A : Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is paramagnetic. Reason R : The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide.
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q54 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with Fe3+ due to the formation of -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 . xH2O
  • B. NaSCN
  • C. [Fe(CN)5NOS]4-
  • D. [Fe(SCN)]2+

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Q55 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0210 ohm-1 cm-1 and the resistance of the cell containing the solution at 25°C is 60 ohm. The value of cell constant is -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. 1.34 cm-1
  • B. 3.28 cm-1
  • C. 1.26 cm-1
  • D. 3.34 cm-1

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Assertion A : A reaction can have zero activation energy. Reason R : The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (1 set)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Which one is an example of heterogenous catalysis?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide in the presence of oxides of nitrogen.
  • B. Hydrolysis of sugar catalysed by H+ ions.
  • C. Decomposition of ozone in presence of nitrogen monoxide.
  • D. Combination between dinitrogen and dihydrogen to form ammonia in the presence of finely divided iron.

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
The given compound $C_6H_5-CH_2-CH=CH-CH_3$ is an example of ___
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (1 set)
  • A. benzylic halide
  • B. aryl halide
  • C. allylic halide
  • D. vinylic halide

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Q59 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Identify the product in the following reaction: C6H5N2Cl -> (i) Cu2Br2 /HBr (ii) Mg/dry ether (iii) H2O
  • A. Phenol
  • B. Benzene
  • C. Phenylmagnesium bromide
  • D. Bromobenzene

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Q59 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Identify the product in the following reaction: (i) $Cu_2Br_2/HBr$ (ii) $Mg/dry ether$ (iii) $H_2O$
Question 59 image
  • A. Phenol
  • B. Benzene
  • C. Bromobenzene
  • D. p-Bromophenol

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Q60 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : Helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus. Reasons R : Helium has high solubility in $O_2$.
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q61 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is AxBy, then the value of x + y is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (2 sets)
  • A. 5
  • B. 4
  • C. 3
  • D. 2

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Q61 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is $A_xB_y$, then the value of $x + y$ is
  • A. 5
  • B. 4
  • C. 3
  • D. 2

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Q62 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Given below are two statements : Statement I : A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside Statement II : When nucleoside is linked to phosphorous acid at 5'-position of sugar moiety, we get nucleotide.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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Q63 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
The relation between $n_m$ ($n_m$ = the number of permissible values of magnetic quantum number ($m$)) for a given value of azimuthal quantum number ($l$), is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. $l = (n_m - 1) / 2$
  • B. $l = 2n_m + 1$
  • C. $n_m = 2l + 1$
  • D. $n_m = l + 2$

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Q64 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Amongst the following, the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its outer most shell, is $NH_3, AlCl_3, BeCl_2, CCl_4, PCl_5$
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 3
  • B. 2
  • C. 4
  • D. 1

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Which amongst the following molecules on polymerization produces neoprene?
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  • A. $H_2C=CH-CH=CH_2$
  • B. $H_2C=C(Cl)-CH=CH_2$
  • C. $H_2C=CH-C(CH_3)=CH_2$
  • D. $H_2C=C(CH_3)-CH=CH_2$

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following belongs to barbiturates?
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  • A. Chlordiazepoxide
  • B. Meprobamate
  • C. Valium
  • D. Veronal

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is :
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  • A. O
  • B. F
  • C. N
  • D. Na

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Q74 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The stability of $Cu^{2+}$ is more than $Cu^+$ salts in aqueous solution due to -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. first ionisation enthalpy.
  • B. enthalpy of atomization.
  • C. hydration energy.
  • D. second ionisation enthalpy.

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Q75 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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  • A. The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in the human body is estimated to be 0.2 - 0.3 g.
  • B. All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer require Ca as the cofactor.
  • C. The bone in human body is an inert and unchanging substance.
  • D. Mg plays roles in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission.

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Q76 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is :
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  • A. 16
  • B. 32
  • C. 30
  • D. 18

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Q77 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Amongst the given options which of the following molecules / ion acts as a Lewis acid?
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  • A. $NH_3$
  • B. $H_2O$
  • C. $BF_3$
  • D. $OH^-$

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?
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  • A. $TlCl_3 > TlCl$
  • B. $InI_3 > InI$
  • C. $AlCl > AlCl_3$
  • D. $TlI > TlI_3$

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Q80 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is :
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  • A. Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
  • B. Diamminechloridonitrito - N - platinum (II)
  • C. Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride
  • D. Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride

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Q83 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
The right option for the mass of $CO_2$ produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca= 40) [$CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{1200 K} CaO + CO_2$]
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  • A. 1.12 g
  • B. 1.76 g
  • C. 2.64 g
  • D. 1.32 g

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Q84 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
For a certain reaction, the rate = $k [ A ]^2 [ B ]$, when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration of B constant, the initial rate would
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. decrease by a factor of nine.
  • B. increase by a factor of six.
  • C. increase by a factor of nine.
  • D. increase by a factor of three.

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: In equation $\Delta_r G = -nFE_{cell}$, value of $\Delta_r G$ depends on n. Reasons R: $E_{cell}$ is an intensive property and $\Delta_r G$ is an extensive property. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match List - I with List - II : List - I (Oxoacids of Sulphur) | List - II (Bonds) A. Peroxodisulphuric acid | I. Two S-OH, Four S=O, One S-O-S B. Sulphuric acid | II. Two S-OH, One S=O C. Pyrosulphuric acid | III. Two S-OH, Four S=O, One S-O-O-S D. Sulphurous acid | IV. Two S-OH, Two S=O Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q87 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? A. All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic. B. The highest oxidation number corresponding to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained in $Sc_2O_3$ to $Mn_2O_7$. C. Basic character increases from $V_2O_3$ to $V_2O_4$ to $V_2O_5$. D. $V_2O_4$ dissolves in acids to give $VO^{2+}$ salts. E. CrO is basic but $Cr_2O_3$ is amphoteric. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. A and E only
  • B. B and D only
  • C. C and D only
  • D. B and C only

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Q90 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
What fraction of one edge centred octahedral void lies in one unit cell of fcc?
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  • A. 1/2
  • B. 1/3
  • C. 1/4
  • D. 1/12

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Q91 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?
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  • A. $\Delta H = \Delta U - \Delta n_g RT$
  • B. $\Delta H = \Delta U + \Delta n_g RT$
  • C. $\Delta H - \Delta U = -\Delta nRT$
  • D. $\Delta H + \Delta U = \Delta nR$

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Q92 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
On balancing the given redox reaction, $a Cr_2O_7^{2-} + b SO_3^{2-} (aq) + c H^+ (aq) \to 2a Cr^{3+} (aq) + b SO_4^{2-} (aq) + \frac{c}{2} H_2O(l)$ the coefficients a, b and c are found to be, respectively:
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  • A. 1, 3, 8
  • B. 3, 8, 1
  • C. 1, 8, 3
  • D. 8, 1, 3

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Q93 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction $A + B \rightleftharpoons C + D$ are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol $L^{-1}$, respectively at 300 K. $\Delta G^0$ for the reaction is ($R = 2$ cal / mol K):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 1372.60 cal
  • B. -137.26 cal
  • C. -1381.80 cal
  • D. -13.73 cal

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Q94 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Pumice stone is an example of -
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  • A. sol
  • B. gel
  • C. solid sol
  • D. foam

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Q98 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The nutrient deficient water bodies lead to eutrophication. Statement II : Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

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Q100 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range during extraction of iron is :
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  • A. $Fe_2O_3 + CO \to 2FeO + CO_2$
  • B. $FeO + CO \to Fe + CO_2$
  • C. $C + CO_2 \to 2CO$
  • D. $CaO + SiO_2 \to CaSiO_3$

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Q100 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range during extraction of iron is:
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  • A. Fe2O3 + CO -> 2FeO + CO2
  • B. FeO + CO -> Fe + CO2
  • C. C + CO2 -> 2CO
  • D. CaO + SiO2 -> CaSiO3

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage. Reason R: Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is correct but R is not correct.
  • D. A is not correct but R is correct.

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are:
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  • A. Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote
  • B. Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
  • C. Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
  • D. Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by
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  • A. Osmosis
  • B. Facilitated Diffusion
  • C. Passive Transport
  • D. Active Transport

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in:
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  • A. insect pollinated plants
  • B. bird pollinated plants
  • C. bat pollinated plants
  • D. wind pollinated plants

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
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  • A. presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover.
  • B. presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait.
  • C. a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.
  • D. more than two genes affecting a single character.

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
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  • A. GA3
  • B. Kinetin
  • C. Ethylene
  • D. 2, 4-D

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?
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  • A. Habitat loss and fragmentation
  • B. Over exploitation for economic gain
  • C. Alien species invasions
  • D. Co-extinctions

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show
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  • A. Bright red colour
  • B. Bright blue colour
  • C. Bright yellow colour
  • D. Bright orange colour

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?
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  • A. manganese
  • B. molybdenum
  • C. magnesium
  • D. copper

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Axile placentation is observed in
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose
  • B. China rose, Beans and Lupin
  • C. Tomato, Dianthus and Pea
  • D. China rose, Petunia and Lemon

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?
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  • A. Zygotene
  • B. Pachytene
  • C. Diplotene
  • D. Diakinesis

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 680 nm
  • B. 700 nm
  • C. 660 nm
  • D. 780 nm

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Frederick Griffith
  • B. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
  • C. Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy
  • D. Wilkins and Franklin

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in -
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  • A. M phase
  • B. S phase
  • C. G1 phase
  • D. G2 phase

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as -
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  • A. Differentiation
  • B. Dedifferentiation
  • C. Development
  • D. Senescence

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Q116 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because
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  • A. It is a disaccharide.
  • B. It is a helical molecule.
  • C. It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
  • D. It breakes down when iodine reacts with it.

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity period, that leads to early seed production?
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  • A. Indole-3-butyric Acid
  • B. Gibberellic Acid
  • C. Zeatin
  • D. Abscisic Acid

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height. Statement II: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
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  • A. Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
  • B. Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
  • C. Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers
  • D. Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
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  • A. All genes that are expressed as RNA.
  • B. All genes that are expressed as proteins.
  • C. All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
  • D. Certain important expressed genes.

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Identify the correct statements : A. Detrivores perform fragmentation. B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization. C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching. D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms. E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. A, B, C only
  • B. B, C, D only
  • C. C, D, E only
  • D. D, E, A only

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of :
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  • A. Dobson units
  • B. Decibels
  • C. Decameter
  • D. Kilobase

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels. Reason R : Cambium is less active in winters. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
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  • A. Metaphase I
  • B. Metaphase II
  • C. Anaphase II
  • D. Telophase

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Q125 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, 'The Earth Summit' was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year :
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  • A. 1985
  • B. 1992
  • C. 1986
  • D. 2002

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?
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  • A. 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2
  • B. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
  • C. 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2
  • D. 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
In the equation GPP - R = NPP, GPP is Gross Primary Productivity, NPP is Net Primary Productivity, R here is
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  • A. Photosynthetically active radiation
  • B. Respiratory quotient
  • C. Respiratory loss
  • D. Reproductive allocation

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out
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  • A. RNA
  • B. DNA
  • C. Histones
  • D. Polysaccharides

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
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  • A. Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
  • B. Transcription of tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
  • C. Transcription of precursor of mRNA
  • D. Transcription of only snRNAs

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
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  • A. To attract insects
  • B. To trap pollen grains
  • C. To disperse pollen grains
  • D. To protect seeds

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
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  • A. To attract insects
  • B. To trap pollen grains
  • C. To disperse pollen grains
  • D. To protect seeds

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Q131 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :
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  • A. Lycopodium and Selaginella
  • B. Selaginella and Salvinia
  • C. Psilotum and Salvinia
  • D. Equisetum and Salvinia

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of metal are used.
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  • A. Copper
  • B. Zinc
  • C. Tungsten or gold
  • D. Silver

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body. Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

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Q134 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
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  • A. Thomas Hunt Morgan
  • B. Sutton and Boveri
  • C. Alfred Sturtevant
  • D. Henking

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements : Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis. Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1-6-diphosphate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
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  • A. The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage polluted water body consume a lot of oxygen causing the death of aquatic organisms.
  • B. Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote fisheries.
  • C. Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body.
  • D. The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at successive trophic levels.

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Q137 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?
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  • A. 80
  • B. 60
  • C. 40
  • D. 20

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Q138 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome? A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866). B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed. C. The affected individual is short statured. D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. E. Such individuals are sterile. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. A and B only
  • B. C and D only
  • C. B and E only
  • D. A and E only

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I: A. Oxidative decarboxylation, B. Glycolysis, C. Oxidative phosphorylation, D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle List II: I. Citrate synthase, II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase, III. Electron transport system, IV. EMP pathway
  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements : Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem. Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q141 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents. Reason R: Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I (Property) | List II (Description) A. Cohesion | I. More attraction in liquid phase B. Adhesion | II. Mutual attraction among water molecules C. Surface tension | III. Water loss in liquid phase D. Guttation | IV. Attraction towards polar surfaces Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

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Q143 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, ATP synthase
  • B. membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, NADP synthase
  • C. proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase
  • D. proton pump, electron gradient, NADP synthase

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Q144 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Melonate (Malonate) inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of
  • A. Succinic dehydrogenase
  • B. Amylase
  • C. Lipase
  • D. Dinitrogenase

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Q145 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Identify the correct statements: A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases. B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark. C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium. D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem. E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. B, C and E only
  • B. A and D only
  • C. A, B and D only
  • D. B and C only

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Q146 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List I with List II: List I | List II A. M Phase | I. Proteins are synthesized B. G2 Phase | II. Inactive phase C. Quiescent stage | III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication D. G1 Phase | IV. Equational division Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • C. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II: List I (Interaction) | List II (Species A and B) A. Mutualism | I. +(A), O(B) B. Commensalism | II. -(A), O(B) C. Amensalism | III. +(A), -(B) D. Parasitism | IV. +(A), +(B) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. Statement II: In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

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Q149 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II : List I | List II --- | --- A. Iron | I. Synthesis of auxin B. Zinc | II. Component of nitrate reductase C. Boron | III. Activator of catalase D. Molybdenum | IV. Cell elongation and differentiation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q150 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence. A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell. B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme. C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment. D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. B, C, D, A
  • B. C, A, B, D
  • C. C, B, D, A
  • D. B, D, A, C

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Match List I with List II. List I | List II --- | --- A. Vasectomy | I. Oral method B. Coitus interruptus | II. Barrier method C. Cervical caps | III. Surgical method D. Saheli | IV. Natural method Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

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Q152 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct. Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.

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Q155 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. Genital herpes
  • B. Gonorrhoea
  • C. Hepatitis-B
  • D. HIV Infection

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Q156 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II. List I | List II --- | --- A. Heroin | I. Effect on cardiovascular system B. Marijuana | II. Slow down body function C. Cocaine | III. Painkiller D. Morphine | IV. Interfere with transport of dopamine Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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Q157 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II. List I (Type of Joint) | List II (Found between) --- | --- A. Cartilaginous Joint | I. Between flat skull bones B. Ball and Socket Joint | II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column C. Fibrous Joint | III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb D. Saddle Joint | IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • C. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

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Q158 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Given below are two statements: Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal). Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of $\alpha$ type and two subunits of $\beta$ type). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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Q159 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system? A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. Chloroplasts D. Golgi complex E. Peroxisomes Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. B and D only
  • B. A, C and E only
  • C. A and D only
  • D. A, D and E only

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Q160 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements: Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate. Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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Q161 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II. List I (Hormone) | List II (Site of secretion) A. CCK | I. Kidney B. GIP | II. Heart C. ANF | III. Gastric gland D. ADH | IV. Pancreas (Note: While CCK is secreted by intestine, it acts on Pancreas/Gallbladder; the pairing logic follows standard matching patterns in NEET exams based on targets/sources)
  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

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Q162 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst. Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q163 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II. List I | List II A. Ringworm | I. Haemophilus influenzae B. Filariasis | II. Trichophyton C. Malaria | III. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Pneumonia | IV. Plasmodium vivax Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q164 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat. Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Match List I with List II. List I | List II A. Taenia | I. Nephridia B. Paramoecium | II. Contractile vacuole C. Periplaneta | III. Flame cells D. Pheretima | IV. Urecose gland Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • B. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • C. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Recombinant DNA Technology
  • B. Serum and Urine analysis
  • C. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique
  • D. Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) technique

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Q169 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid. Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • D. Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.

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Q171 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole
  • B. Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
  • C. Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
  • D. Lemur, Anteater, Wolf

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle? A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle. B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause. C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A and D only
  • B. A and B only
  • C. A, B and C only
  • D. A, C and D only

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Q173 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Vital capacity of lung is ______.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. IRV + ERV
  • B. IRV + ERV + TV + RV
  • C. IRV + ERV + TV - RV
  • D. IRV + ERV + TV

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Q174 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II. List I (ECG component) | List II (Event) A. P-wave | I. Beginning of systole B. Q-wave | II. Repolarisation of ventricles C. QRS complex | III. Depolarisation of atria D. T-wave | IV. Depolarisation of ventricles Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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Q175 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme. Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q176 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Sphincter of Oddi
  • B. Ileo-caecal valve
  • C. Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
  • D. Pyloric sphincter

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Q177 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match List I with List II. List I (Lac operon gene) | List II (Product/Function) A. Gene 'a' | I. Beta-galactosidase B. Gene 'y' | II. Transacetylase C. Gene 'i' | III. Permease D. Gene 'z' | IV. Repressor protein Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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Q178 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II. List I (Cells) | List II (Secretion) A. Peptic cells | I. Mucus B. Goblet cells | II. Bile juice C. Oxyntic cells | III. Proenzyme pepsinogen D. Hepatic cells | IV. HCl and intrinsic factor for absorption of vitamin B12 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q179 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Nuclear division
  • B. Protein synthesis
  • C. Motility
  • D. Transportation

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Q180 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla. Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • C. A is true but R is false.
  • D. A is false but R is true.

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Q181 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant. Statement II: Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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Q182 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Down's syndrome
  • B. Turner's syndrome
  • C. Klinefelter's syndrome
  • D. Thalassemia

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Q183 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ________.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Ctenophora
  • B. Hemichordata
  • C. Coelenterata
  • D. Echinodermata

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Q184 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. TH cells
  • B. B-lymphocytes
  • C. Basophils
  • D. Eosinophils

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Q185 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. BAC
  • B. YAC
  • C. pBR322
  • D. Probe

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Q186 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II. List I (A: Logistic growth, B: Exponential growth, C: Expanding age pyramid, D: Stable age pyramid) List II (I: Unlimited resource availability condition, II: Limited resource availability condition, III: The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups, IV: The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age group are same) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (1 set)
  • A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

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Q187 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Select the correct statements with reference to chordates. A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord. B. Presence of closed circulatory system. C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gillslits. D. Presence of dorsal heart. E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A, C and D only
  • B. B and C only
  • C. B, D and E only
  • D. C, D and E only

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Q188 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Limbic system & hypothalamus
  • B. Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus
  • C. Brain stem & epithalamus
  • D. Corpus callosum and thalamus

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Q189 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
The unique mammalian characteristics are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. hairs, tympanic membrane and mammary glands
  • B. hairs, pinna and mammary glands
  • C. hairs, pinna and indirect development
  • D. pinna, monocondylic skull and mammary glands

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Q190 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone? A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle D. Development of immune system E. Support the process of R.B.Cs formation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A and D only
  • B. B and C only
  • C. C and D only
  • D. D and E only

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Q191 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Select the correct statements. A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene. B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate. C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene. D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase. E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. A and C only
  • B. B and D only
  • C. A, C and E only
  • D. B and E only

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Q192 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Match List I with List II. List I (A: Mast cells, B: Inner surface of bronchiole, C: Blood, D: Tubular parts of nephron) List II (I: Ciliated epithelium, II: Areolar connective tissue, III: Cuboidal epithelium, IV: specialised connective tissue) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q193 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Dark brown body colour and anal cerci
  • B. Presence of anal styles
  • C. Presence of sclerites
  • D. Presence of anal cerci

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Q194 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on mRNA formed is as follows: 5' AUCG AUCG AUCG AUCG AUCG AUCG AUCG 3'?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 5' UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGC UAGC 3'
  • B. 3' UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGC 5'
  • C. 5' ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG 3'
  • D. 3' ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG 5'

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Q195 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
In cockroach, excretion is brought about by: A. Phallic gland B. Urecose gland C. Nephrocytes D. Fat body E. Collaterial glands Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A and E only
  • B. A, B and E only
  • C. B, C and D only
  • D. B and D only

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Q196 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements: Statement I: During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive. Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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Q197 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. It decreases homozygosity.
  • B. It exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
  • C. Elimination of less desirable genes and accumulation of superior genes takes place due to it.
  • D. It decreases the productivity of inbred population, after continuous inbreeding.

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Q198 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements are correct? A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors. B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis. C. ANF causes vasodilation. D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure. E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A and B only
  • B. B, C and D only
  • C. A, B and E only
  • D. C, D and E only

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Q199 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle? A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle. B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions. C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins. D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (2 sets)
  • A. A, B and C only
  • B. B and C only
  • C. A, C and D only
  • D. C and D only

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Q200 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements are correct? A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus E. Basophils are agranulocytes Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. D and E only
  • B. C and E only
  • C. B and C only
  • D. A and B only

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