Q1
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
The temperature of a gas is -50° C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 669° C
- B. 3295° C
- C. 3097 K
- D. 223 K
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Q1
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
The temperature of a gas is -50° C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. 669° C
- B. 3295° C
- C. 3097 K
- D. 223 K
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Q2
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. capacitive reactance decreases.
- B. displacement current increases.
- C. displacement current decreases.
- D. capacitive reactance remains constant
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Q2
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. capacitive reactance decreases.
- B. displacement current increases.
- C. displacement current decreases.
- D. capacitive reactance remains constant
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Q3
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity.
Statement II : Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
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Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is $(22000 \pm 5\%) \Omega$. The colour of third band must be :
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2023 (1 set)
- A. Red
- B. Green
- C. Orange
- D. Yellow
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Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is $(22000 \pm 5\%) \Omega$. The colour of third band must be:
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. Red
- B. Green
- C. Orange
- D. Yellow
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Q5
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given by :
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2023 (4 sets)
- A. 200 \Omega
- B. 50 \Omega
- C. 100 \Omega
- D. 400 \Omega
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Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity $2 \times 10^5 \text{ N C}^{-1}$. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
- A. 8 mC
- B. 6 mC
- C. 4 mC
- D. 2 mC
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Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity $2 \times 10^5 \text{ N C}^{-1}$. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 8 mC
- B. 6 mC
- C. 4 mC
- D. 2 mC
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Q7
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A vehicle travels half the distance with speed $v$ and the remaining distance with speed $2v$. Its average speed is:
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. v / 3
- B. 2v / 3
- C. 4v / 3
- D. 3v / 4
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Q7
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining distance with speed 2v. Its average speed is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. v/3
- B. 2v/3
- C. 4v/3
- D. 3v/4
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Q8
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is
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2023 (5 sets)
- A. 0.2 A from B to A through E
- B. 0.5 A from A to B through E
- C. 5/9 A from A to B through E
- D. 1.5 A from B to A through E
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Q9
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 \mu F and resistance R is 100 \Omega. The frequency at which resonance occurs is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. 15.9 rad/s
- B. 15.9 kHz
- C. 1.59 rad/s
- D. 1.59 kHz
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Q10
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
Light travels a distance x in time t1 in air and 10x in time t2 in another denser medium. What is the critical angle for this medium?
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2023 (3 sets)
- A. sin^{-1}(t1 / 10t2)
- B. sin^{-1}(10t2 / t1)
- C. sin^{-1}(t2 / 10t1)
- D. sin^{-1}(10t1 / t2)
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Q11
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is proportional to:
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2023 (3 sets)
- A. \sqrt{V}
- B. 1/V
- C. 1/\sqrt{V}
- D. V^2
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Q12
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280 m s^{-1} in the direction 30° above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the bullet is (g = 9.8 m s^{-2}, sin 30° = 0.5):
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. 2800 m
- B. 2000 m
- C. 1000 m
- D. 3000 m
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Q13
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. A centre-tapped transformer
- B. p-n junction diodes
- C. Capacitor
- D. Load resistance
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Q14
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly: (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m^{-1})
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. 30.16 \times 10^{-4} J
- B. 5.06 \times 10^{-4} J
- C. 3.01 \times 10^{-4} J
- D. 50.1 \times 10^{-4} J
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Q15
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is:
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 1 : 2
- B. 2 : 1
- C. 1 : 3
- D. 3 : 1
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Q15
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is :
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 1 : 2
- B. 2 : 1
- C. 1 : 3
- D. 3 : 1
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Q16
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is:
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2023 (9 sets)
- A. 2W/A
- B. W/A
- C. W/2A
- D. Zero
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Q16
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (9 sets)
- A. 2W/A
- B. W/A
- C. W/2A
- D. Zero
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Q17
PHYSICS
Unit 20: Experimental Skills
A metal wire has mass (0.4 \pm 0.002) g, radius (0.3 \pm 0.001) mm and length (5 \pm 0.02) cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:
- A. 1.2%
- B. 1.3%
- C. 1.6%
- D. 1.4%
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Q17
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A metal wire has mass ($0.4 \pm 0.002$) g, radius ($0.3 \pm 0.001$) mm and length ($5 \pm 0.02$) cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. 1.2%
- B. 1.3%
- C. 1.6%
- D. 1.4%
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Q18
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below:
Statement I: If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant.
Statement II: If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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2023 (5 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
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Q19
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is :
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. along the radius, away from centre
- B. along the radius towards the centre
- C. along the tangent to its position
- D. along the axis of rotation
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Q20
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of $2.0 \times 10^{10}$ Hz and amplitude 48 Vm$^{-1}$. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is : (Speed of light in free space = $3 \times 10^8$ m s$^{-1}$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. 1.6 x 10^-9 T
- B. 1.6 x 10^-8 T
- C. 1.6 x 10^-7 T
- D. 1.6 x 10^-6 T
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Q21
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is :
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. 2 µF
- B. 3 µF
- C. 6 µF
- D. 9 µF
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Q23
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The venturi-meter works on :
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. Huygen's principle
- B. Bernoulli's principle
- C. The principle of parallel axes
- D. The principle of perpendicular axes
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Q24
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 µH carrying a current of 2 A is :
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. 4 µJ
- B. 4 mJ
- C. 8 mJ
- D. 8 µJ
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Q25
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G = gravitational constant) :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. -8Gm/R
- B. -12Gm/R
- C. -16Gm/R
- D. -20Gm/R
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Q26
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
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2023 (4 sets)
- A. Cs only
- B. Both Na and K
- C. K only
- D. Na only
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Q27
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step down transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. 0.27 A
- B. 2.7 A
- C. 3.7 A
- D. 0.37 A
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Q28
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. Zero
- B. Positive
- C. Infinity
- D. Negative
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Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored in it will be :
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 2U
- B. 4U
- C. 8U
- D. 16U
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Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored in it will be:
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2023 (1 set)
- A. 2U
- B. 4U
- C. 8U
- D. 16U
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Q30
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to (1/16)th of its initial value?
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 20 minutes
- B. 40 minutes
- C. 60 minutes
- D. 80 minutes
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Q31
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327° C. The temperature of the sink is :
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2023 (9 sets)
- A. 27° C
- B. 15° C
- C. 100° C
- D. 200° C
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Q31
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327° C. The temperature of the sink is:
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2023 (9 sets)
- A. 27° C
- B. 15° C
- C. 100° C
- D. 200° C
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Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
If $\oint \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{S} = 0$ over a surface, then :
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2023 (9 sets)
- A. the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.
- B. the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.
- C. all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.
- D. the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.
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Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
If $\oint_s \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{S} = 0$ over a surface, then:
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2023 (9 sets)
- A. the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.
- B. the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.
- C. all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.
- D. the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.
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Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is $\lambda$. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is :
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. 2λ
- B. 4λ
- C. 9λ
- D. 16λ
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Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is $\lambda$. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is:
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. 2\lambda
- B. 4\lambda
- C. 9\lambda
- D. 16\lambda
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Q34
PHYSICS
Unit 20: Experimental Skills
The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage supply are:
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2023 (1 set)
- A. Instrumental errors
- B. Personal errors
- C. Least count errors
- D. Random errors
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Q35
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. 3 : 5
- B. 5 : 3
- C. 2 : 5
- D. 5 : 2
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Q36
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (f), but one is convex and the other one is concave. When they are placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be:
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. Zero
- B. f /4
- C. f /2
- D. Infinite
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Q38
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3 x 10^{-11} m. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom?
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 0.53 Å
- B. 1.06 Å
- C. 1.59 Å
- D. 4.77 Å
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Q39
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series to a battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased n times. The value of n is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. 10
- B. 100
- C. 1
- D. 1000
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Q41
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15 (g = 10 m s^{-2}).
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. 1.2 m s^{-2}
- B. 150 m s^{-2}
- C. 1.5 m s^{-2}
- D. 50 m s^{-2}
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Q44
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity u. When bullet travels 24 cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes u/3. Then it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is:
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2023 (3 sets)
- A. 27 cm
- B. 24 cm
- C. 28 cm
- D. 30 cm
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Q46
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. 10\sqrt{2} \ \Omega
- B. 15 \ \Omega
- C. 5\sqrt{5} \ \Omega
- D. 25 \ \Omega
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Q47
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period $T$. If $d$ is the density of the earth and $G$ is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity $\frac{3\pi}{Gd}$ represents:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. T
- B. T^2
- C. T^3
- D. \sqrt{T}
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Q48
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A wire carrying a current I along the positive x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field $\vec{B} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}) T$. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (3 sets)
- A. 3 IL
- B. \sqrt{5} IL
- C. 5 IL
- D. \sqrt{3} IL
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Q48
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A wire carrying a current $I$ along the positive x-axis has length $L$. It is kept in a magnetic field $\vec{B} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}) \text{ T}$. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (3 sets)
- A. 3 IL
- B. \sqrt{5} IL
- C. 5 IL
- D. \sqrt{3} IL
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Q49
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is 2Ω and 6.8Ω at 80°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (4 sets)
- A. 3x10^{-4} °C^{-1}
- B. 3x10^{-3} °C^{-1}
- C. 3x10^{-2} °C^{-1}
- D. 3x10^{-1} °C^{-1}
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Q49
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The resistance of platinum wire at $0^\circ\text{C}$ is $2 \Omega$ and $6.8 \Omega$ at $80^\circ\text{C}$. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (4 sets)
- A. 3 \times 10^{-4} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}
- B. 3 \times 10^{-3} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}
- C. 3 \times 10^{-2} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}
- D. 3 \times 10^{-1} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}
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Q50
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity 4 m s^{-1}. The ball strikes the water surface after 4 s. The height of bridge above water surface is (Take g = 10 m s^{-2}):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. 56 m
- B. 60 m
- C. 64 m
- D. 68 m
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Q52
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting particles that will include:
A. dipole-dipole forces.
B. dipole-induced dipole forces.
C. hydrogen bonding.
D. covalent bonding.
E. dispersion forces.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- A. B, C, D, E are correct.
- B. A, B, C, D are correct.
- C. A, B, C, E are correct.
- D. A, C, D, E are correct.
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Q53
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Which amongst the following molecules on polymerization produces neoprene?
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2023 (3 sets)
- A. H_2C = CH - CH = CH_2
- B. H_2C = C(Cl) - CH = CH_2
- C. H_2C = CH - C(CH_3) = CH
- D. H_2C = C(CH_3) - CH = CH_2
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Q56
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is paramagnetic.
Reasons R: The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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2023 (2 sets)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q58
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In equation $\Delta_r G = -nFE_{cell}$, value of $\Delta_r G$ depends on $n$.
Reasons R: $E_{cell}$ is an intensive property and $\Delta_r G$ is an extensive property.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q60
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is:
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. O
- B. F
- C. N
- D. Na
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Q60
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. O
- B. F
- C. N
- D. Na
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Q61
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is:
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2023 (5 sets)
- A. 16
- B. 32
- C. 30
- D. 18
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Q62
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?
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- A. $TlCl_3 > TlCl$
- B. $InI_3 > InI$
- C. $AlCl > AlCl_3$
- D. $TlI > TlI_3$
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Q64
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Amongst the given options which of the following molecules / ion acts as a Lewis acid?
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- A. $NH_3$
- B. $H_2O$
- C. $BF_3$
- D. $OH^-$
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Q67
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The number of $\sigma$ bonds, $\pi$ bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are:
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2023 (2 sets)
- A. 11, 2, 0
- B. 12, 3, 0
- C. 11, 3, 1
- D. 12, 2, 1
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Q68
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Which one is an example of heterogenous catalysis?
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide in the presence of oxides of nitrogen.
- B. Hydrolysis of sugar catalysed by $H^+$ ions.
- C. Decomposition of ozone in presence of nitrogen monoxide.
- D. Combination between dinitrogen and dihydrogen to form ammonia in the presence of finely divided iron.
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Q71
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
The right option for the mass of $CO_2$ produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)
$[CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{1200 K} CaO + CO_2]$
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- A. 1.12 g
- B. 1.76 g
- C. 2.64 g
- D. 1.32 g
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Q72
CHEMISTRY
Unit 2: Atomic Structure
The relation between $n_m$ ($n_m = $ the number of permissible values of magnetic quantum number ($m$)) for a given value of azimuthal quantum number ($l$), is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. $l = \frac{n_m - 1}{2}$
- B. $l = 2n_m + 1$
- C. $n_m = 2l^2 + 1$
- D. $n_m = l + 2$
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Q74
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside
Statement II: When nucleoside is linked to phosphorous acid at 5'-position of sugar moiety, we get nucleotide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
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Q75
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus.
Reason R: Helium has high solubility in $O_2$.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q76
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The stability of $Cu^{2+}$ is more than $Cu^+$ salts in aqueous solution due to -
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. first ionisation enthalpy.
- B. enthalpy of atomization.
- C. hydration energy.
- D. second ionisation enthalpy.
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Q77
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I:
A. Coke, B. Diamond, C. Fullerene, D. Graphite
List-II:
I. Carbon atoms are $sp^3$ hybridised.
II. Used as a dry lubricant.
III. Used as a reducing agent.
IV. Cage like molecules
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
- C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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Q78
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is $A_xB_y$, then the value of $x + y$ is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (2 sets)
- A. 5
- B. 4
- C. 3
- D. 2
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Q79
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Amongst the following, the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its outer most shell, is
$NH_3, AlCl_3, BeCl_2, CCl_4, PCl_5$:
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. 3
- B. 2
- C. 4
- D. 1
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Q80
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals.
B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism.
C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from oils.
D. The H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of any element.
E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more active than iron.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
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2023 (1 set)
- A. B, C, D, E only
- B. B, D only
- C. D, E only
- D. A, B, C only
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Q81
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: A reaction can have zero activation energy.
Reason R: The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q82
CHEMISTRY
Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following belongs to barbiturates?
- A. Chlordiazepoxide
- B. Meprobamate
- C. Valium
- D. Veronal
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Q83
CHEMISTRY
Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Select the correct statements from the following:
A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.
B. The mass of the electron is $9.10939 \times 10^{-31}$ kg.
C. All the isotopes of a given element show same chemical properties.
D. Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.
E. Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the correct answer:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (3 sets)
- A. A, B and C only
- B. C, D and E only
- C. A and E only
- D. B, C and E only
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Q84
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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- A. The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in the human body is estimated to be 0.2 - 0.3 g.
- B. All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer require Ca as the cofactor.
- C. The bone in human body is an inert and unchanging substance.
- D. Mg plays roles in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission.
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Q84
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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2023 (5 sets)
- A. The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in the human body is estimated to be 0.2 - 0.3 g.
- B. All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer require Ca as the cofactor.
- C. The bone in human body is an inert and unchanging substance.
- D. Mg plays roles in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission.
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Q85
CHEMISTRY
Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with $Fe^{3+}$ due to the formation of -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. $Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3 \cdot xH_2O$
- B. $NaSCN$
- C. $[Fe(CN)_5NOS]^{4-}$
- D. $[Fe(SCN)]^{2+}$
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Q85
CHEMISTRY
Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with Fe3+ due to the formation of -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 · xH2O
- B. NaSCN
- C. [Fe(CN)5NOS]4-
- D. [Fe(SCN)]2+
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Q86
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions?
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Q88
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
On balancing the given redox reaction, $a Cr_2O_7^{2-} + b SO_3^{2-} + c H^+ \rightarrow 2a Cr^{3+} + b SO_4^{2-} + (c/2) H_2O$, the coefficients a, b and c are found to be, respectively:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. 1, 3, 8
- B. 3, 8, 1
- C. 1, 8, 3
- D. 8, 1, 3
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Q88
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
On balancing the given redox reaction, $a Cr_2O_7^{2-}(aq) + b SO_3^{2-}(aq) + c H^+(aq) \rightarrow 2a Cr^{3+}(aq) + b SO_4^{2-}(aq) + \frac{c}{2} H_2O(l)$, the coefficients a, b and c are found to be, respectively -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. 1, 3, 8
- B. 3, 8, 1
- C. 1, 8, 3
- D. 8, 1, 3
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Q89
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The nutrient deficient water bodies lead to eutrophication.
Statement II: Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (9 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q89
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The nutrient deficient water bodies lead to eutrophication.
Statement II : Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (9 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q90
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match List - I with List - II :
List - I (Oxoacids of Sulphur)
A. Peroxodisulphuric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Pyrosulphuric acid
D. Sulphurous acid
List - II (Bonds)
I. Two S-OH, Four S=O, One S-O-S
II. Two S-OH, One S=O
III. Two S-OH, Four S=O, One S-O-O-S
IV. Two S-OH, Two S=O
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- A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
- B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
- C. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
- D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-1
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Q91
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction $A + B \rightleftharpoons C + D$ are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol L-1, respectively at 300 K. $\Delta G^0$ for the reaction is (R = 2 cal / mol K)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. 1372.60 cal
- B. -137.26 cal
- C. -1381.80 cal
- D. -13.73 cal
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Q93
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT?
A. All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic.
B. The highest oxidation number corresponding to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained in $Sc_2O_3$ to $Mn_2O_7$.
C. Basic character increases from $V_2O_3$ to $V_2O_4$ to $V_2O_5$.
D. $V_2O_4$ dissolves in acids to give $VO_4^{3-}$ salts.
E. CrO is basic but $Cr_2O_3$ is amphoteric.
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2023 (2 sets)
- A. A and E only
- B. B and D only
- C. C and D only
- D. B and C only
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Q94
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Pumice stone is an example of -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. sol
- B. gel
- C. solid sol
- D. foam
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Q98
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. $\Delta H = \Delta U - \Delta n_g RT$
- B. $\Delta H = \Delta U + \Delta n_g RT$
- C. $\Delta H - \Delta U = - \Delta n RT$
- D. $\Delta H + \Delta U = \Delta n R$
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Q99
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
What fraction of one edge centred octahedral void lies in one unit cell of fcc?
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- A. 1/2
- B. 1/3
- C. 1/4
- D. 1/12
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Q100
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range during extraction of iron is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. Fe2O3 + CO \rightarrow 2FeO + CO2
- B. FeO + CO \rightarrow Fe + CO2
- C. C + CO2 \rightarrow 2CO
- D. CaO + SiO2 \rightarrow CaSiO3
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Q101
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Osmosis
- B. Facilitated Diffusion
- C. Passive Transport
- D. Active Transport
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Q103
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. M phase
- B. S phase
- C. G1 phase
- D. G2 phase
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Q105
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (4 sets)
- A. Zygotene
- B. Pachytene
- C. Diplotene
- D. Diakinesis
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Q108
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of ______ metal are used.
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. Copper
- B. Zinc
- C. Tungsten or gold
- D. Silver
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Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
In the equation GPP - R = NPP, GPP is Gross Primary Productivity, NPP is Net Primary Productivity, R here is ______.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (9 sets)
- A. Photosynthetically active radiation
- B. Respiratory quotient
- C. Respiratory loss
- D. Reproductive allocation
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Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
In the equation $$GPP - R = NPP$$, GPP is Gross Primary Productivity, NPP is Net Primary Productivity. R here is ________.
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2023 (9 sets)
- A. Photosynthetically active radiation
- B. Respiratory quotient
- C. Respiratory loss
- D. Reproductive allocation
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Q111
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as:
- A. Differentiation
- B. Dedifferentiation
- C. Development
- D. Senescence
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Q112
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
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2023 (6 sets)
- A. Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
- B. Transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA
- C. Transcription of precursor of mRNA
- D. Transcription of only snRNAs
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Q113
PHYSICS
Unit 20: Experimental Skills
Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show
- A. Bright red colour
- B. Bright blue colour
- C. Bright yellow colour
- D. Bright orange colour
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Q113
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show:
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- A. Bright red colour
- B. Bright blue colour
- C. Bright yellow colour
- D. Bright orange colour
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Q114
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of :
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2023 (9 sets)
- A. Dobson units
- B. Decibels
- C. Decameter
- D. Kilobase
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Q114
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of:
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2023 (9 sets)
- A. Dobson units
- B. Decibels
- C. Decameter
- D. Kilobase
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Q115
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. GA3
- B. Kinetin
- C. Ethylene
- D. 2, 4-D
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Q115
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. GA3
- B. Kinetin
- C. Ethylene
- D. 2, 4-D
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Q116
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are:
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- A. Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote
- B. Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
- C. Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
- D. Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
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Q117
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. It is a disaccharide.
- B. It is a helical molecule.
- C. It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
- D. It breakes down when iodine reacts with it.
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Q118
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?
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- A. Habitat loss and fragmentation
- B. Over exploitation for economic gain
- C. Alien species invasions
- D. Co-extinctions
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Q119
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following:
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. Lycopodium and Selaginella
- B. Selaginella and Salvinia
- C. Psilotum and Salvinia
- D. Equisetum and Salvinia
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Q120
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
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2023 (5 sets)
- A. Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
- B. Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
- C. Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers
- D. Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
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Q121
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, 'The Earth Summit' was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year:
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- A. 1985
- B. 1992
- C. 1986
- D. 2002
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Q122
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:
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- A. RNA
- B. DNA
- C. Histones
- D. Polysaccharides
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Q123
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
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2023 (2 sets)
- A. To attract insects
- B. To trap pollen grains
- C. To disperse pollen grains
- D. To protect seeds
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Q124
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height. Statement II: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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2023 (7 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
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Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity period, that leads to early seed production?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. Indole-3-butyric Acid
- B. Gibberellic Acid
- C. Zeatin
- D. Abscisic Acid
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Q126
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. manganese
- B. molybdenum
- C. magnesium
- D. copper
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Q127
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Identify the correct statements:
A. Detrivores perform fragmentation.
B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization.
C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching.
D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms.
E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. A, B, C only
- B. B, C, D only
- C. C, D, E only
- D. D, E, A only
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Q127
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Identify the correct statements:
A. Detrivores perform fragmentation.
B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization.
C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching.
D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms.
E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. A, B, C only
- B. B, C, D only
- C. C, D, E only
- D. D, E, A only
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Q128
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. Metaphase I
- B. Metaphase II
- C. Anaphase II
- D. Telophase
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Q128
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (1 set)
- A. Metaphase I
- B. Metaphase II
- C. Anaphase II
- D. Telophase
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Q129
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at:
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 680 nm
- B. 700 nm
- C. 660 nm
- D. 780 nm
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Q129
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. 680 nm
- B. 700 nm
- C. 660 nm
- D. 780 nm
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Q130
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II: Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q130
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II: Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q131
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. Thomas Hunt Morgan
- B. Sutton and Boveri
- C. Alfred Sturtevant
- D. Henking
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Q132
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover.
- B. presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait.
- C. a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.
- D. more than two genes affecting a single character.
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Q133
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (2 sets)
- A. All genes that are expressed as RNA.
- B. All genes that are expressed as proteins.
- C. All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
- D. Certain important expressed genes.
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Q134
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2
- B. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
- C. 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2
- D. 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2
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Q135
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. insect pollinated plants
- B. bird pollinated plants
- C. bat pollinated plants
- D. wind pollinated plants
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Q136
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List I with List II:
List I | List II
A. M Phase | I. Proteins are synthesized
B. G2 Phase | II. Inactive phase
C. Quiescent stage | III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
D. G1 Phase | IV. Equational division
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
- B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
- C. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
- D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
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Q137
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage polluted water body consume a lot of oxygen causing the death of aquatic organisms.
- B. Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote fisheries.
- C. Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body.
- D. The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at successive trophic levels.
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Q138
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason R: Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q139
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. B, C, D, A
- B. C, A, B, D
- C. C, B, D, A
- D. B, D, A, C
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Q139
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. B, C, D, A
- B. C, A, B, D
- C. C, B, D, A
- D. B, D, A, C
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Q140
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. 80
- B. 60
- C. 40
- D. 20
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Q141
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II:
List I (Element) | List II (Function)
A. Iron | I. Synthesis of auxin
B. Zinc | II. Component of nitrate reductase
C. Boron | III. Activator of catalase
D. Molybdenum | IV. Cell elongation and differentiation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
- B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
- C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
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Q142
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents.
Reason R: Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (3 sets)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q143
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II:
List I (Interaction) | List II (Species A and B)
A. Mutualism | I. + (A), 0 (B)
B. Commensalism | II. - (A), 0 (B)
C. Amensalism | III. + (A), - (B)
D. Parasitism | IV. + (A), + (B)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
- B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
- C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
- D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
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Q144
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Malonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. Succinic dehydrogenase
- B. Amylase
- C. Lipase
- D. Dinitrogenase
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Q145
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II:
List I | List II
A. Cohesion | I. More attraction in liquid phase
B. Adhesion | II. Mutual attraction among water molecules
C. Surface tension | III. Water loss in liquid phase
D. Guttation | IV. Attraction towards polar surfaces
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
- C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
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Q146
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, ATP synthase
- B. membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, NADP synthase
- C. proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase
- D. proton pump, electron gradient, NADP synthase
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Q147
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Identify the correct statements:
A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases.
B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark.
C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium.
D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem.
E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. B, C and E only
- B. A and D only
- C. A, B and D only
- D. B and C only
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Q148
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. A and B only
- B. C and D only
- C. B and E only
- D. A and E only
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Q149
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
Statement II: In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q149
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q150
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II :
List I (Process) | List II (Associated Enzyme/Component)
A. Oxidative decarboxylation | I. Citrate synthase
B. Glycolysis | II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Oxidative phosphorylation | III. Electron transport system
D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle | IV. EMP pathway
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
- B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
- D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
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Q151
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II.
List I (Type of Joint) | List II (Found between)
A. Cartilaginous Joint | I. Between flat skull bones
B. Ball and Socket Joint | II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
C. Fibrous Joint | III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
D. Saddle Joint | IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
- B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- C. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
- D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
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Q152
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. Nuclear division
- B. Protein synthesis
- C. Motility
- D. Transportation
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Q153
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match List I with List II.
List I (Gene) | List II (Product)
A. Gene 'a' | I. $\beta$-galactosidase
B. Gene 'y' | II. Transacetylase
C. Gene 'i' | III. Permease
D. Gene 'z' | IV. Repressor protein
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
- B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
- C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
- D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
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Q154
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (1 set)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q155
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II.
List I (Disease) | List II (Pathogen)
A. Ringworm | I. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Filariasis | II. Trichophyton
C. Malaria | III. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Pneumonia | IV. Plasmodium vivax
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
- B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
- C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
- D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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Q156
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II.
List I (Method) | List II (Category)
A. Vasectomy | I. Oral method
B. Coitus interruptus | II. Barrier method
C. Cervical caps | III. Surgical method
D. Saheli | IV. Natural method
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (1 set)
- A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
- C. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
- D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
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Q157
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. Recombinant DNA Technology
- B. Serum and Urine analysis
- C. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique
- D. Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) technique
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Q158
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II with respect to human eye.
| List I | List II |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Fovea | I. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil. |
| B. Iris | II. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue. |
| C. Blind spot | III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution. |
| D. Sclera | IV. Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
- C. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
- D. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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Q159
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole
- B. Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
- C. Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
- D. Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
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Q160
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II.
| List I | List II |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. P-wave | I. Beginning of systole |
| B. Q-wave | II. Repolarisation of ventricles |
| C. QRS complex | III. Depolarisation of atria |
| D. T-wave | IV. Depolarisation of ventricles |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
- C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
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Q161
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II.
| List I | List II |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Heroin | I. Effect on cardiovascular system |
| B. Marijuana | II. Slow down body function |
| C. Cocaine | III. Painkiller |
| D. Morphine | IV. Interfere with transport of dopamine |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
- B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
- C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
- D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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Q162
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Vital capacity of lung is ______.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. IRV + ERV
- B. IRV + ERV + TV + RV
- C. IRV + ERV + TV - RV
- D. IRV + ERV + TV
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Q163
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. Down's syndrome
- B. Turner's syndrome
- C. Klinefelter's syndrome
- D. Thalassemia
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Q164
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (2 sets)
- A. Genital herpes
- B. Gonorrhoea
- C. Hepatitis-B
- D. HIV Infection
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Q165
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
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Q166
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal).
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of α type and two subunits of β type.)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (4 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
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Q167
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II.
| List I (Interacting species) | List II (Name of Interaction) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. A Leopard and a Lion in a forest/grassland | I. Competition |
| B. A Cuckoo laying egg in a Crow's nest | II. Brood parasitism |
| C. Fungi and root of a higher plant in Mycorrhizae | III. Mutualism |
| D. A cattle egret and a Cattle in a field | IV. Commensalism |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (6 sets)
- A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
- B. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
- C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
- D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
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Q168
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. BAC
- B. YAC
- C. pBR322
- D. Probe
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Q168
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. BAC
- B. YAC
- C. pBR322
- D. Probe
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Q169
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (4 sets)
- A. 0-----0
- B. O==C)
- C. T
- D. ■ ••
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Q170
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (5 sets)
- A. A and D only
- B. A and B only
- C. A, B and C only
- D. A, C and D only
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Q171
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II.
List I | List II
A. CCK | I. Kidney
B. GIP | II. Heart
C. ANF | III. Gastric gland
D. ADH | IV. Pancreas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (4 sets)
- A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
- B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
- C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
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Q172
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid.
Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (1 set)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- D. Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
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Q173
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system?
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Chloroplasts
D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (7 sets)
- A. B and D only
- B. A, C and E only
- C. A and D only
- D. A, D and E only
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Q174
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following statements is correct?
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2023 (8 sets)
- A. Eutrophication refers to increase in domestic sewage and waste water in lakes.
- B. Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
- C. Presence of large amount of nutrients in water restricts 'Algal Bloom'
- D. Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality
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Q175
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (4 sets)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q176
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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Q176
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2023 (8 sets)
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C. A is true but R is false.
- D. A is false but R is true.
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