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NEET-F1-2023

180 questions from this NEET 2023 paper. Log in to view the correct answer and explanation for each question.

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Q1 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 5 : 3
  • B. 2 : 5
  • C. 5 : 2
  • D. 3 : 5

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Q1 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 5 : 3
  • B. 2 : 5
  • C. 5 : 2
  • D. 3 : 5

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. Both Na and K
  • B. K only
  • C. Na only
  • D. Cs only

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. Both Na and K
  • B. K only
  • C. Na only
  • D. Cs only

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly : (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m$^{-1}$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 5.06×10$^{-4}$ J
  • B. 3.01×10$^{-4}$ J
  • C. 50.1×10$^{-4}$ J
  • D. 30.16×10$^{-4}$ J

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly : (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m$^{-1}$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 5.06x10$^{-4}$ J
  • B. 3.01x10$^{-4}$ J
  • C. 50.1 x 10$^{-4}$ J
  • D. 30.16x10$^{-4}$ J

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is $(22000 \pm 5\%) \Omega$. The colour of third band must be :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Green
  • B. Orange
  • C. Yellow
  • D. Red

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is (22000 ± 5%) Ω. The colour of third band must be :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Green
  • B. Orange
  • C. Yellow
  • D. Red

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 $\mu$F and resistance R is 100 $\Omega$. The frequency at which resonance occurs is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 15.9 kHz
  • B. 1.59 rad/s
  • C. 1.59 kHz
  • D. 15.9 rad/s

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 µF and resistance R is 100 Ω. The frequency at which resonance occurs is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 15.9 kHz
  • B. 1.59 rad/s
  • C. 1.59 kHz
  • D. 15.9 rad/s

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0×10$^{10}$ Hz and amplitude 48 V m$^{-1}$. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is : (Speed of light in free space = 3 × 10$^8$ m s$^{-1}$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 1.6×10$^{-8}$ T
  • B. 1.6×10$^{-7}$ T
  • C. 1.6×10$^{-6}$ T
  • D. 1.6×10$^{-9}$ T

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0x10$^{10}$ Hz and amplitude 48 Vm$^{-1}$. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is : (Speed of light in free space = 3 x 10$^8$ ms$^{-1}$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 1.6x10$^{-8}$ T
  • B. 1.6x10$^{-7}$ T
  • C. 1.6x10$^{-6}$ T
  • D. 1.6x10$^{-9}$ T

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Q7 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity. Statement II : Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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Q7 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity. Statement II : Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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Q8 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage supply are :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Personal errors
  • B. Least count errors
  • C. Random errors
  • D. Instrumental errors

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
If $\oint_S \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{S} = 0$ over a surface, then :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.
  • B. all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.
  • C. the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.
  • D. the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
If $\oint_s \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{S} = 0$ over a surface, then :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.
  • B. all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.
  • C. the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.
  • D. the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.

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Q10 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given by :
Question 10 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. 50 Ω
  • B. 100 Ω
  • C. 400 Ω
  • D. 200 Ω

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Q11 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. displacement current increases.
  • B. displacement current decreases.
  • C. capacitive reactance remains constant
  • D. capacitive reactance decreases.

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Q12 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is proportional to:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (2 sets)
  • A. 1/V
  • B. 1/\sqrt{V}
  • C. V$^2$
  • D. \sqrt{V}

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Q13 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The venturi-meter works on:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Bernoulli's principle
  • B. The principle of parallel axes
  • C. The principle of perpendicular axes
  • D. Huygen's principle

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. p-n junction diodes
  • B. Capacitor
  • C. Load resistance
  • D. A centre-tapped transformer

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 1.3%
  • B. 1.6%
  • C. 1.4%
  • D. 1.2%

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A metal wire has mass $(0.4 \pm 0.002)$ g, radius $(0.3 \pm 0.001)$ mm and length $(5 \pm 0.02)$ cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 1.3%
  • B. 1.6%
  • C. 1.4%
  • D. 1.2%

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Q16 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below: Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant. Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored in it will be :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 4U
  • B. 8U
  • C. 16U
  • D. 2U

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Q19 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step down transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 2.7 A
  • B. 3.7 A
  • C. 0.37 A
  • D. 0.27 A

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Q23 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of $280 \text{ m s}^{-1}$ in the direction $30^\circ$ above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the bullet is ($g = 9.8 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $\sin 30^\circ = 0.5$):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 2000 m
  • B. 1000 m
  • C. 3000 m
  • D. 2800 m

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Q24 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Positive
  • B. Infinity
  • C. Negative
  • D. Zero

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 3 µF
  • B. 6 µF
  • C. 9 µF
  • D. 2 µF

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Q27 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to $(1/16)^{th}$ of its initial value?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 40 minutes
  • B. 60 minutes
  • C. 80 minutes
  • D. 20 minutes

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
The temperature of a gas is $-50^{\circ}\text{C}$. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 3295° C
  • B. 3097 K
  • C. 223 K
  • D. 669° C

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature $327^\circ C$. The temperature of the sink is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 15° C
  • B. 100° C
  • C. 200° C
  • D. 27° C

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature $327^{\circ}\text{C}$. The temperature of the sink is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. 15° C
  • B. 100° C
  • C. 200° C
  • D. 27° C

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 µH carrying a current of 2 A is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 4 mJ
  • B. 8 mJ
  • C. 8 µJ
  • D. 4 µJ

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance $4 \mu\text{H}$ carrying a current of $2 \text{ A}$ is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 4 mJ
  • B. 8 mJ
  • C. 8 \mu\text{J}
  • D. 4 \mu\text{J}

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. W/A
  • B. W/2A
  • C. Zero
  • D. 2W/A

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight $W$ attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area $A$ of the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (9 sets)
  • A. W/A
  • B. W/2A
  • C. Zero
  • D. 2W/A

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of $30^\circ$ with an electric field of intensity $2 \times 10^5 \text{ N C}^{-1}$. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 6 mC
  • B. 4 mC
  • C. 2 mC
  • D. 8 mC

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is $\lambda$. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 4λ
  • B. 9λ
  • C. 16λ
  • D. 2λ

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is $\lambda$. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 4\lambda
  • B. 9\lambda
  • C. 16\lambda
  • D. 2\lambda

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Q34 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. 2: 1
  • B. 1: 3
  • C. 3: 1
  • D. 1: 2

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Q36 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity $u$. When bullet travels 24 cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes $u/3$. Then it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. 24 cm
  • B. 28 cm
  • C. 30 cm
  • D. 27 cm

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Q37 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is $5.3 \times 10^{-11} \text{ m}$. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 1.06 \text{ \AA}
  • B. 1.59 \text{ \AA}
  • C. 4.77 \text{ \AA}
  • D. 0.53 \text{ \AA}

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Q38 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15 ($g = 10 \text{ m s}^{-2}$).
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 150 m s^{-2}
  • B. 1.5 m s^{-2}
  • C. 50 m s^{-2}
  • D. 1.2 m s^{-2}

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Q39 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
10 resistors, each of resistance $R$ are connected in series to a battery of emf $E$ and negligible internal resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased $n$ times. The value of $n$ is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. 100
  • B. 1
  • C. 1000
  • D. 10

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Q40 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity $4 \text{ m s}^{-1}$. The ball strikes the water surface after 4 s. The height of bridge above water surface is (Take $g = 10 \text{ m s}^{-2}$):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 60 m
  • B. 64 m
  • C. 68 m
  • D. 56 m

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Q41 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be:
Question 41 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. 15 \Omega
  • B. 5\sqrt{5} \Omega
  • C. 25 \Omega
  • D. 10\sqrt{2} \Omega

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Q42 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period $T$. If $d$ is the density of the earth and $G$ is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity $\frac{3\pi}{Gd}$ represents:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. T^2
  • B. T^3
  • C. \sqrt{T}
  • D. T

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Q43 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths ($f$), but one is convex and the other one is concave. When they are placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. f /4
  • B. f /2
  • C. Infinite
  • D. Zero

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Q44 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
For the following logic circuit, the truth table is:
Question 44 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. A B y: 0 0 0; 0 1 1; 1 0 1; 1 1 1
  • B. A B y: 0 0 1; 0 1 0; 1 0 0; 1 1 0
  • C. A B y: 0 0 0; 0 1 0; 1 0 0; 1 1 1
  • D. A B y: 0 0 1; 0 1 1; 1 0 1; 1 1 0

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Q45 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular shape from A to B as shown in figure. The magnetic field at point P for steady current configuration is given by:
Question 45 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. \frac{\mu_0 I}{4R} \text{ pointed away from the page}
  • B. \frac{\mu_0 I}{4R} [1 - \frac{2}{\pi}] \text{ pointed away from page}
  • C. \frac{\mu_0 I}{4R} [1 - \frac{2}{\pi}] \text{ pointed into the page}
  • D. \frac{\mu_0 I}{4R} \text{ pointed into the page}

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Q46 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The resistance of platinum wire at $0^{\circ}\text{C}$ is $2\Omega$ and $6.8\Omega$ at $80^{\circ}\text{C}$. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. 3 \times 10^{-3} \text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}^{-1}
  • B. 3 \times 10^{-2} \text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}^{-1}
  • C. 3 \times 10^{-1} \text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}^{-1}
  • D. 3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}^{-1}

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Q46 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is $2\, \Omega$ and $6.8\, \Omega$ at 80°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. $3 \times 10^{-3} \, ^\circ C^{-1}$
  • B. $3 \times 10^{-2} \, ^\circ C^{-1}$
  • C. $3 \times 10^{-1} \, ^\circ C^{-1}$
  • D. $3 \times 10^{-4} \, ^\circ C^{-1}$

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Q47 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure. The electric potential (in $10^2 \text{ V}$) at point P due to the dipole is ($\epsilon_0$ = permittivity of free space and $\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} = K$):
Question 47 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (2 sets)
  • A. (5/8)qK
  • B. (8/5)qK
  • C. (8/3)qK
  • D. (3/8)qK

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Q48 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)?
Question 48 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. -40 cm
  • B. -100 cm
  • C. -50 cm
  • D. 40 cm

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Q48 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)?
Question 48 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. -40 cm
  • B. -100 cm
  • C. -50 cm
  • D. 40 cm

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Q49 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A wire carrying a current $I$ along the positive x-axis has length $L$. It is kept in a magnetic field $\vec{B} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}) \text{ T}$. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. \sqrt{5} IL
  • B. 5 IL
  • C. \sqrt{3} IL
  • D. 3 IL

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Q49 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A wire carrying a current $I$ along the positive x-axis has length $L$. It is kept in a magnetic field $\vec{B} = (2 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} - 4 \hat{k})\, \text{T}$. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. $\sqrt{5} IL$
  • B. $5 IL$
  • C. $\sqrt{3} IL$
  • D. $3 IL$

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Q50 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The x-t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle at $t = 2 \text{ s}$ is:
Question 50 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. -\frac{\pi^2}{8} \text{ m s}^{-2}
  • B. \frac{\pi^2}{16} \text{ m s}^{-2}
  • C. -\frac{\pi^2}{16} \text{ m s}^{-2}
  • D. \frac{\pi^2}{8} \text{ m s}^{-2}

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Q50 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The x-t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is :
Question 50 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. $\frac{\pi^2}{8} \text{ms}^{-2}$
  • B. $-\frac{\pi^2}{16} \text{ms}^{-2}$
  • C. $-\frac{\pi^2}{16} \text{ms}^{-2}$
  • D. $\frac{\pi^2}{8} \text{ms}^{-2}$

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Q51 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The stability of $Cu^{2+}$ is more than $Cu^+$ salts in aqueous solution due to -
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  • A. enthalpy of atomization.
  • B. hydration energy.
  • C. second ionisation enthalpy.
  • D. first ionisation enthalpy.

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Q52 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Which one is an example of heterogenous catalysis?
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  • A. Hydrolysis of sugar catalysed by $H^+$ ions.
  • B. Decomposition of ozone in presence of nitrogen monoxide.
  • C. Combination between dinitrogen and dihydrogen to form ammonia in the presence of finely divided iron.
  • D. Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide in the presence of oxides of nitrogen.

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
For a certain reaction, the rate = $k [A]^2 [B]$, when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration of B constant, the initial rate would
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  • A. increase by a factor of six.
  • B. increase by a factor of nine.
  • C. increase by a factor of three.
  • D. decrease by a factor of nine.

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
For a certain reaction, the rate = $k[A]^2[B]$. when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration of B constant, the initial rate would
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. increase by a factor of six.
  • B. increase by a factor of nine.
  • C. increase by a factor of three.
  • D. decrease by a factor of nine.

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match List - I with List - II : List - I: A. Coke, B. Diamond, C. Fullerene, D. Graphite List - II: I. Carbon atoms are $sp^3$ hybridised, II. Used as a dry lubricant, III. Used as a reducing agent, IV. Cage like molecules
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  • A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match List - I with List - II : List - I | List - II A. Coke | I. Carbon atoms are $sp^3$ hybridised. B. Diamond | II. Used as a dry lubricant C. Fullerene | III. Used as a reducing agent D. Graphite | IV. Cage like molecules Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (1 set)
  • A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q60 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is $A_xB_y$, then the value of x + y is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (2 sets)
  • A. 4
  • B. 3
  • C. 2
  • D. 5

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Q61 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is :
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  • A. Diamminechloridonitrito - N - platinum (II)
  • B. Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride
  • C. Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride
  • D. Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)

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Q64 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : Helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus. Reasons R : Helium has high solubility in $O_2$. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is true but R is false.
  • C. A is false but R is true.
  • D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q66 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Which of the following statements are NOT correct? A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals. B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism. C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from oils. D. The H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of any element. E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more active than iron. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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  • A. B, D only
  • B. D, E only
  • C. A, B, C only
  • D. B, C, D, E only

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0210 $\text{ohm}^{-1} \text{cm}^{-1}$ and the resistance of the cell containing the solution at 25°C is 60 $\text{ohm}$. The value of cell constant is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. 3.28 $\text{cm}^{-1}$
  • B. 1.26 $\text{cm}^{-1}$
  • C. 3.34 $\text{cm}^{-1}$
  • D. 1.34 $\text{cm}^{-1}$

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Amongst the given options which of the following molecules / ion acts as a Lewis acid?
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  • A. H$_2$O
  • B. BF$_3$
  • C. OH⁻
  • D. NH$_3$

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Amongst the given options which of the following molecules / ion acts as a Lewis acid?
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  • A. H$_2$O
  • B. BF$_3$
  • C. OH$^-$
  • D. NH$_3$

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Given below are two statements: Statement I: A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside. Statement II: When nucleoside is linked to phosphoric acid at 5'-position of sugar moiety, we get nucleotide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
The relation between $n_m$ ($n_m$ = the number of permissible values of magnetic quantum number ($m$)) for a given value of azimuthal quantum number ($l$), is:
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  • A. $l = 2n_m + 1$
  • B. $n_m = 2l^2 + 1$
  • C. $n_m = l + 2$
  • D. $l = \frac{n_m - 1}{2}$

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Q73 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Amongst the following, the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its outer most shell, is: NH$_3$, AlCl$_3$, BeCl$_2$, CCl$_4$, PCl$_5$
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  • A. 2
  • B. 4
  • C. 1
  • D. 3

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Q76 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is:
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  • A. F
  • B. N
  • C. Na
  • D. O

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Q77 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following belongs to barbiturates?
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  • A. Meprobamate
  • B. Valium
  • C. Veronal
  • D. Chlordiazepoxide

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Q78 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Given below are two statements: Assertion A: In equation $\Delta_rG = -nFE_{\text{cell}}$, value of $\Delta_rG$ depends on $n$. Reason R: $E_{\text{cell}}$ is an intensive property and $\Delta_rG$ is an extensive property. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is true but R is false.
  • C. A is false but R is true.
  • D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Which amongst the following molecules on polymerization produces neoprene?
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  • A. H$_2$C=C(Cl)-CH=CH$_2$
  • B. H$_2$C=CH-C≡CH
  • C. H$_2$C=C(CH$_3$)-CH=CH$_2$
  • D. H$_2$C=CH-CH=CH$_2$

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is:
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  • A. 32
  • B. 30
  • C. 18
  • D. 16

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Q82 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product?
Question 82 image
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  • A. CH3CN -> (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+ -> Product
  • B. CH3NC -> (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+ -> Product
  • C. CH3CONH2 -> (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+ -> Product
  • D. CH3CONH2 -> Br2 / KOH -> Product

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Q83 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
The right option for the mass of CO$_2$ produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca= 40). [CaCO$_3$ → CaO + CO$_2$]
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  • A. 1.76 g
  • B. 2.64 g
  • C. 1.32 g
  • D. 1.12 g

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Q83 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
The right option for the mass of CO2 produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40) [CaCO3 -> CaO + CO2]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 1.76 g
  • B. 2.64 g
  • C. 1.32 g
  • D. 1.12 g

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The number of $\sigma$ bonds, $\pi$ bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are:
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  • A. 12, 3, 0
  • B. 11, 3, 1
  • C. 12, 2, 1
  • D. 11, 2, 0

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The number of σ bonds, π bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are:
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  • A. 12, 3, 0
  • B. 11, 3, 1
  • C. 12, 2, 1
  • D. 11, 2, 0

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?
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  • A. $\Delta H = \Delta U + \Delta n_g RT$
  • B. $\Delta H - \Delta U = -\Delta nRT$
  • C. $\Delta H + \Delta U = \Delta nR$
  • D. $\Delta H = \Delta U - \Delta n_g RT$

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?
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  • A. ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT
  • B. ΔH - ΔU = -ΔnRT
  • C. ΔH + ΔU = ΔnR
  • D. ΔH = ΔU - ΔngRT

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range during extraction of iron is :
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  • A. FeO + CO -> Fe + CO2
  • B. C + CO2 -> 2CO
  • C. CaO + SiO2 -> CaSiO3
  • D. Fe2O3 + CO -> 2FeO + CO2

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Q97 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The nutrient deficient water bodies lead to eutrophication. Statement II: Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q99 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Pumice stone is an example of -
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  • A. gel
  • B. solid sol
  • C. foam
  • D. sol

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Q99 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Pumice stone is an example of -
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  • A. gel
  • B. solid sol
  • C. foam
  • D. sol

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
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  • A. Kinetin
  • B. Ethylene
  • C. 2, 4-D
  • D. GA_3

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by
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  • A. Facilitated Diffusion
  • B. Passive Transport
  • C. Active Transport
  • D. Osmosis

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in:
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  • A. bird pollinated plants
  • B. bat pollinated plants
  • C. wind pollinated plants
  • D. insect pollinated plants

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as -
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  • A. Dedifferentiation
  • B. Development
  • C. Senescence
  • D. Differentiation

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, 'The Earth Summit' was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year :
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  • A. 1992
  • B. 1986
  • C. 2002
  • D. 1985

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out
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  • A. DNA
  • B. Histones
  • C. Polysaccharides
  • D. RNA

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
How many ATP and NADPH_2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?
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  • A. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH_2
  • B. 12 ATP and 16 NADPH_2
  • C. 18 ATP and 16 NADPH_2
  • D. 12 ATP and 12 NADPH_2

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
In the equation GPP - R = NPP. GPP is Gross Primary Productivity. NPP is Net Primary Productivity. R here is
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  • A. Respiratory quotient
  • B. Respiratory loss
  • C. Reproductive allocation
  • D. Photosynthetically active radiation

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of ——— metal are used.
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  • A. Zinc
  • B. Tungsten or gold
  • C. Silver
  • D. Copper

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
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  • A. presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait.
  • B. a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.
  • C. more than two genes affecting a single character.
  • D. presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover.

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements: Assertion A: Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels. Reason R: Cambium is less active in winters. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is true but R is false.
  • C. A is false but R is true.
  • D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in -
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  • A. S phase
  • B. G_1 phase
  • C. G_2 phase
  • D. M phase

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
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  • A. Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
  • B. Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers
  • C. Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
  • D. Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Axile placentation is observed in
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. China rose, Beans and Lupin
  • B. Tomato, Dianthus and Pea
  • C. China rose, Petunia and Lemon
  • D. Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Axile placentation is observed in
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. China rose, Beans and Lupin
  • B. Tomato, Dianthus and Pea
  • C. China rose, Petunia and Lemon
  • D. Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :
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  • A. Selaginella and Salvinia
  • B. Psilotum and Salvinia
  • C. Equisetum and Salvinia
  • D. Lycopodium and Selaginella

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following:
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  • A. Selaginella and Salvinia
  • B. Psilotum and Salvinia
  • C. Equisetum and Salvinia
  • D. Lycopodium and Selaginella

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of :
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  • A. Decibels
  • B. Decameter
  • C. Kilobase
  • D. Dobson units

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of:
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  • A. Decibels
  • B. Decameter
  • C. Kilobase
  • D. Dobson units

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
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  • A. To trap pollen grains
  • B. To disperse pollen grains
  • C. To protect seeds
  • D. To attract insects

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
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  • A. To trap pollen grains
  • B. To disperse pollen grains
  • C. To protect seeds
  • D. To attract insects

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are two statements: Assertion A: The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage. Reason R: Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is correct but R is not correct.
  • C. A is not correct but R is correct.
  • D. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height. Statement II: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity period, that leads to early seed production?
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  • A. Gibberellic Acid
  • B. Zeatin
  • C. Abscisic Acid
  • D. Indole-3-butyric Acid

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
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  • A. Sutton and Boveri
  • B. Alfred Sturtevant
  • C. Henking
  • D. Thomas Hunt Morgan

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
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  • A. All genes that are expressed as proteins.
  • B. All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
  • C. Certain important expressed genes.
  • D. All genes that are expressed as RNA.

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show
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  • A. Bright blue colour
  • B. Bright yellow colour
  • C. Bright orange colour
  • D. Bright red colour

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements: Assertion A: ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis. Reason R: First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1-6-diphosphate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is true but R is false.
  • C. A is false but R is true.
  • D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q125 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
  • B. Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy
  • C. Wilkins and Franklin
  • D. Frederick Griffith

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Identify the correct statements: A. Detrivores perform fragmentation. B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization. C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching. D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms. E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. B, C, D only
  • B. C, D, E only
  • C. D, E, A only
  • D. A, B, C only

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Identify the correct statements: A. Detritivores perform fragmentation. B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization. C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching. D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms. E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. B, C, D only
  • B. C, D, E only
  • C. D, E, A only
  • D. A, B, C only

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 700 nm
  • B. 660 nm
  • C. 780 nm
  • D. 680 nm

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. 700 nm
  • B. 660 nm
  • C. 780 nm
  • D. 680 nm

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are:
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  • A. Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
  • B. Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
  • C. Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
  • D. Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
  • B. Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
  • C. Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
  • D. Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?
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  • A. molybdenum
  • B. magnesium
  • C. copper
  • D. manganese

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
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  • A. Metaphase II
  • B. Anaphase II
  • C. Telophase
  • D. Metaphase I

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Q131 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because
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  • A. It is a helical molecule.
  • B. It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
  • C. It breakes down when iodine reacts with it.
  • D. It is a disaccharide.

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?
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  • A. Over exploitation for economic gain
  • B. Alien species invasions
  • C. Co-extinctions
  • D. Habitat loss and fragmentation

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
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  • A. Transcription of tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNA
  • B. Transcription of precursor of mRNA
  • C. Transcription of only snRNAs
  • D. Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)

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Q134 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body. Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?
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  • A. Pachytene
  • B. Diplotene
  • C. Diakinesis
  • D. Zygotene

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Q138 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?
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  • A. membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, NADP synthase
  • B. proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase
  • C. proton pump, electron gradient, NADP synthase
  • D. membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, ATP synthase

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List I with List II: List I | List II --- | --- A. M Phase | I. Proteins are synthesized B. G2 Phase | II. Inactive phase C. Quiescent stage | III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication D. G1 Phase | IV. Equational division Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II: List I (Interaction) | List II (Species A and B) --- | --- A. Mutualism | I. + (A), O(B) B. Commensalism | II. -(A), O(B) C. Amensalism | III. + (A), -(B) D. Parasitism | IV. +(A), +(B) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

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Q141 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. Statement II: In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I | List II --- | --- A. Iron | I. Synthesis of auxin B. Zinc | II. Component of nitrate reductase C. Boron | III. Activator of catalase D. Molybdenum | IV. Cell elongation and differentiation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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Q143 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome? A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866). B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed. C. The affected individual is short statured. D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. E. Such individuals are sterile. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. C and D only
  • B. B and E only
  • C. A and E only
  • D. A and B only

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Q144 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Identify the correct statements: A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases. B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark. C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium. D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem. E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A and D only
  • B. A, B and D only
  • C. B and C only
  • D. B, C and E only

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Q145 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?
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  • A. 60
  • B. 40
  • C. 20
  • D. 80

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Q146 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of
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  • A. Amylase
  • B. Lipase
  • C. Dinitrogenase
  • D. Succinic dehydrogenase

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I | List II --- | --- A. Cohesion | I. More attraction in liquid phase B. Adhesion | II. Mutual attraction among water molecules C. Surface tension | III. Water loss in liquid phase D. Guttation | IV. Attraction towards polar surfaces Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I | List II --- | --- A. Cohesion | I. More attraction in liquid phase B. Adhesion | II. Mutual attraction among water molecules C. Surface tension | III. Water loss in liquid phase D. Guttation | IV. Attraction towards polar surfaces Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I | List II --- | --- A. Oxidative decarboxylation | I. Citrate synthase B. Glycolysis | II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Oxidative phosphorylation | III. Electron transport system D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle | IV. EMP pathway Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I | List II A. Oxidative decarboxylation | I. Citrate synthase B. Glycolysis | II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Oxidative phosphorylation | III. Electron transport system D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle | IV. EMP pathway Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q149 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem. Reason R: Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is true but R is false.
  • C. A is false but R is true.
  • D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q150 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence. A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell. B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme. C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment. D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. C, A, B, D
  • B. C, B, D, A
  • C. B, D, A, C
  • D. B, C, D, A

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle? A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle. B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause. C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A and B only
  • B. A, B and C only
  • C. A, C and D only
  • D. A and D only

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Q152 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme. Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is true but R is false.
  • C. A is false but R is true.
  • D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q153 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II. List I (Interacting species) | List II (Name of Interaction) A. A Leopard and a Lion in a forest/grassland | I. Competition B. A Cuckoo laying egg in a Crow's nest | II. Brood parasitism C. Fungi and root of a higher plant in Mycorrhizae | III. Mutualism D. A cattle egret and a Cattle in a field | IV. Commensalism Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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Q154 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Vital capacity of lung is ______.
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  • A. IRV + ERV + TV + RV
  • B. IRV + ERV + TV - RV
  • C. IRV + ERV + TV
  • D. IRV + ERV

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Q154 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Vital capacity of lung is ________.
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  • A. IRV + ERV + TV + RV
  • B. IRV + ERV + TV - RV
  • C. IRV + ERV + TV
  • D. IRV + ERV

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Q155 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
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  • A. Gonorrhoea
  • B. Hepatitis-B
  • C. HIV Infection
  • D. Genital herpes

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Q155 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (2 sets)
  • A. Gonorrhoea
  • B. Hepatitis-B
  • C. HIV Infection
  • D. Genital herpes

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Q156 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II. List I | List II A. CCK | I. Kidney B. GIP | II. Heart C. ANF | III. Gastric gland D. ADH | IV. Pancreas Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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Q157 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II. List I | List II --- | --- A. Ringworm | I. Haemophilus influenzae B. Filariasis | II. Trichophyton C. Malaria | III. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Pneumonia | IV. Plasmodium vivax Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • B. (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • C. (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • D. (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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Q159 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?
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  • A. B-lymphocytes
  • B. Basophils
  • C. Eosinophils
  • D. TH cells

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Q160 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat. Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q161 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue. Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q162 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system? A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. Chloroplasts D. Golgi complex E. Peroxisomes Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A, C and E only
  • B. A and D only
  • C. A, D and E only
  • D. B and D only

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Q164 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-
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  • A. Turner's syndrome
  • B. Klinefelter's syndrome
  • C. Thalassemia
  • D. Down's syndrome

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following statements is correct?
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  • A. Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
  • B. Presence of large amount of nutrients in water restricts 'Algal Bloom'
  • C. Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality
  • D. Eutrophication refers to increase in domestic sewage and waste water in lakes.

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following statements is correct?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
  • B. Presence of large amount of nutrients in water restricts 'Algal Bloom'
  • C. Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality
  • D. Eutrophication refers to increase in domestic sewage and waste water in lakes.

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Match List I with List II. List I | List II --- | --- A. Taenia | I. Nephridia B. Paramoecium | II. Contractile vacuole C. Periplaneta | III. Flame cells D. Pheretima | IV. Urecose gland Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • B. (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • C. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • D. (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List I with List II. | List I | List II | | :--- | :--- | | A. Taenia | I. Nephridia | | B. Paramoecium | II. Contractile vacuole | | C. Periplaneta | III. Flame cells | | D. Pheretima | IV. Urecose gland | Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (3 sets)
  • A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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Q167 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant. Statement II: Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • C. Statement I incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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Q168 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct. Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (4 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q169 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ______
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  • A. Hemichordata
  • B. Coelenterata
  • C. Echinodermata
  • D. Ctenophora

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Q171 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II with respect to human eye. | List I | List II | | :--- | :--- | | A. Fovea | I. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil. | | B. Iris | II. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue. | | C. Blind spot | III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution. | | D. Sclera | IV. Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent. | Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (5 sets)
  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Protein synthesis
  • B. Motility
  • C. Transportation
  • D. Nuclear division

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Q173 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Ileo-caecal valve
  • B. Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
  • C. Pyloric sphincter
  • D. Sphincter of Oddi

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Q175 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II. | List I (Type of Joint) | List II (Found between) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Cartilaginous Joint | I. Between flat skull bones | | B. Ball and Socket Joint | II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column | | C. Fibrous Joint | III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb | | D. Saddle Joint | IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle | Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q176 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements: Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate. Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q176 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements: Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate. Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (8 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q177 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid. Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (6 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q179 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
  • B. Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
  • C. Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
  • D. Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole

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Q180 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2023 (7 sets)
  • A. YAC
  • B. pBR322
  • C. Probe
  • D. BAC

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