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Q1
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A football player is moving southward and suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player while turning is :
-
A.
along northward
-
B.
along north-east
-
C.
along south-west
-
D.
along eastward
Q2
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency :
-
A.
displacement current increases.
-
B.
displacement current decreases.
-
C.
capacitive reactance remains constant
-
D.
capacitive reactance decreases.
Q2
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency :
-
A.
displacement current increases.
-
B.
displacement current decreases.
-
C.
capacitive reactance remains constant
-
D.
capacitive reactance decreases.
Q3
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to $(\frac{1}{16})^{th}$ of its initial value?
-
A.
40 minutes
-
B.
60 minutes
-
C.
80 minutes
-
D.
20 minutes
Q3
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to (1/16)th of its initial value?
-
A.
40 minutes
-
B.
60 minutes
-
C.
80 minutes
-
D.
20 minutes
Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is :
-
A.
Positive
-
B.
Infinity
-
C.
Negative
-
D.
Zero
Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is :
-
A.
Positive
-
B.
Infinity
-
C.
Negative
-
D.
Zero
Q5
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is :
-
A.
3 μF
-
B.
6 μF
-
C.
9 μF
-
D.
2 μF
Q5
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is :
-
A.
3 µF
-
B.
6 µF
-
C.
9 µF
-
D.
2 µF
Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is :
-
A.
2 : 1
-
B.
1 : 3
-
C.
3 : 1
-
D.
1 : 2
Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is :
-
A.
2 : 1
-
B.
1 : 3
-
C.
3 : 1
-
D.
1 : 2
Q7
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is λ. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is :
-
A.
4 λ
-
B.
9 λ
-
C.
16 λ
-
D.
2 λ
Q7
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is A. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is :
-
A.
4A
-
B.
9A
-
C.
16 A
-
D.
2A
Q8
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step down transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?
-
A.
2.7 A
-
B.
3.7 A
-
C.
0.37 A
-
D.
0.27 A
Q8
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step down transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?
-
A.
2.7 A
-
B.
3.7 A
-
C.
0.37 A
-
D.
0.27 A
Q9
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is
-
A.
0.5 A from A to B through E
-
B.
5/9 A from A to B through E
-
C.
1.5 A from B to A through E
-
D.
0.2 A from B to A through E
Q10
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 μH carrying a current of 2 A is :
-
A.
4 mJ
-
B.
8 mJ
-
C.
8 μJ
-
D.
4 μJ
Q10
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 µH carrying a current of 2 A is :
-
A.
4 mJ
-
B.
8 mJ
-
C.
8 µJ
-
D.
4 µJ
Q11
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored in it will be :
Q12
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage supply are :
-
A.
Personal errors
-
B.
Least count errors
-
C.
Random errors
-
D.
Instrumental errors
Q13
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is (22000 ± 5%) Ω. The colour of third band must be :
-
A.
Green
-
B.
Orange
-
C.
Yellow
-
D.
Red
Q14
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:
-
A.
1.3%
-
B.
1.6%
-
C.
1.4%
-
D.
1.2%
Q16
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 x 10^10 Hz and amplitude 48 v m⁻¹. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is : (Speed of light in free space = 3 x 10^8 m s⁻¹)
-
A.
1.6 x 10⁻⁸ T
-
B.
1.6 x 10⁻⁷ T
-
C.
1.6 x 10⁻⁶ T
-
D.
1.6 x 10⁻⁹ T
Q17
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is :
-
A.
5 : 3
-
B.
2 : 5
-
C.
5 : 2
-
D.
3 : 5
Q17
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass $M$ and radius $R$ about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is :
-
A.
5 : 3
-
B.
2 : 5
-
C.
5 : 2
-
D.
3 : 5
Q18
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly : (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m⁻¹)
-
A.
5.06 x 10⁻⁴ J
-
B.
3.01 x 10⁻⁴ J
-
C.
50.1 x 10⁻⁴ J
-
D.
30.16 x 10⁻⁴ J
Q18
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly : (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m$^{-1}$)
-
A.
5.06 x 10$^{-4}$ J
-
B.
3.01 x 10$^{-4}$ J
-
C.
50.1 x 10$^{-4}$ J
-
D.
30.16 x 10$^{-4}$ J
Q19
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 µF and resistance R is 100 Ω. The frequency at which resonance occurs is :
-
A.
15.9 kHz
-
B.
1.59 rad/s
-
C.
1.59 kHz
-
D.
15.9 rad/s
Q19
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In a series LCR circuit, the inductance $L$ is 10 mH, capacitance $C$ is 1 $\mu$F and resistance $R$ is 100 $\Omega$. The frequency at which resonance occurs is :
-
A.
15.9 kHz
-
B.
1.59 rad/s
-
C.
1.59 kHz
-
D.
15.9 rad/s
Q20
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
If $\oint_s \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{S} = 0$ over a surface, then :
-
A.
the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.
-
B.
all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.
-
C.
the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.
-
D.
the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.
Q20
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
If $\oint_s E \cdot dS = 0$ over a surface, then :
-
A.
the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.
-
B.
all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.
-
C.
the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.
-
D.
the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving.
Q21
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The venturi-meter works on:
-
A.
Bernoulli's principle
-
B.
The principle of parallel axes
-
C.
The principle of perpendicular axes
-
D.
Huygen's principle
Q27
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is :
-
A.
W/A
-
B.
W/2A
-
C.
Zero
-
D.
2W/A
Q28
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?
-
A.
p-n junction diodes
-
B.
Capacitor
-
C.
Load resistance
-
D.
A centre-tapped transformer
Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity $2 \times 10^5$ N C$^{-1}$. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
-
A.
6 mC
-
B.
4 mC
-
C.
2 mC
-
D.
8 mC
Q30
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327° C. The temperature of the sink is :
-
A.
15° C
-
B.
100° C
-
C.
200° C
-
D.
27° C
Q31
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below:
Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant.
Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
-
A.
Both Na and K
-
B.
K only
-
C.
Na only
-
D.
Cs only
Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
-
A.
Both Na and K
-
B.
K only
-
C.
Na only
-
D.
Cs only
Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity.
Statement II : Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity.
Statement II: Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q35
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280 m s$^{-1}$ in the direction 30$^{\circ}$ above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the bullet is ($g = 9.8$ m s$^{-2}$, $\sin 30^{\circ} = 0.5$):
-
A.
2000 m
-
B.
1000 m
-
C.
3000 m
-
D.
2800 m
Q36
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period $T$. If $d$ is the density of the earth and $G$ is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity $\frac{3\pi}{Gd}$ represents:
-
A.
$T^2$
-
B.
$T^3$
-
C.
$\sqrt{T}$
-
D.
$T$
Q38
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is $5.3 \times 10^{-11}$ m. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom?
-
A.
1.06 Å
-
B.
1.59 Å
-
C.
4.77 Å
-
D.
0.53 Å
Q41
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
10 resistors, each of resistance $R$ are connected in series to a battery of emf $E$ and negligible internal resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased $n$ times. The value of $n$ is:
-
A.
100
-
B.
1
-
C.
1000
-
D.
10
Q45
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15 ($g = 10$ m s$^{-2}$).
-
A.
150 m s$^{-2}$
-
B.
1.5 m s$^{-2}$
-
C.
50 m s$^{-2}$
-
D.
1.2 m s$^{-2}$
Q46
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths ($f$), but one is convex and the other one is concave. When they are placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be:
-
A.
$f/4$
-
B.
$f/2$
-
C.
Infinite
-
D.
Zero
Q47
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity 4 m s$^{-1}$. The ball strikes the water surface after 4 s. The height of bridge above water surface is (Take $g = 10$ m s$^{-2}$):
-
A.
60 m
-
B.
64 m
-
C.
68 m
-
D.
56 m
Q48
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The resistance of platinum wire at 0$^{\circ}$C is 2 $\Omega$ and 6.8 $\Omega$ at 80$^{\circ}$C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
-
A.
$3 \times 10^{-3} \text{ } ^{\circ}\text{C}^{-1}$
-
B.
$3 \times 10^{-2} \text{ } ^{\circ}\text{C}^{-1}$
-
C.
$3 \times 10^{-1} \text{ } ^{\circ}\text{C}^{-1}$
-
D.
$3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ } ^{\circ}\text{C}^{-1}$
Q61
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is paramagnetic.
Reason R: The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q62
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
The right option for the mass of $CO_2$ produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40): $$CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{1200 K} CaO + CO_2$$
-
A.
1.76 g
-
B.
2.64 g
-
C.
1.32 g
-
D.
1.12 g
Q64
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
For a certain reaction, the rate = $k[A]^2[B]$. When the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration of B constant, the initial rate would:
-
A.
increase by a factor of six.
-
B.
increase by a factor of nine.
-
C.
increase by a factor of three.
-
D.
decrease by a factor of nine.
Q65
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?
-
A.
InI_3 > InI
-
B.
AlCl > AlCl_3
-
C.
TlI > TlI_3
-
D.
TlCl_3 > TlCl
Q66
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals.
B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism.
C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from oils.
D. The H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of any element.
E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more active than iron.
-
A.
B, D only
-
B.
D, E only
-
C.
A, B, C only
-
D.
B, C, D, E only
Q69
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In equation $\Delta_r G = -nFE_{cell}$, value of $\Delta_r G$ depends on n.
Reason R: $E_{cell}$ is an intensive property and $\Delta_r G$ is an extensive property.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q70
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Amongst the following, the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its outer most shell, is: $NH_3, AlCl_3, BeCl_2, CCl_4, PCl_5$
Q72
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is $A_xB_y$, then the value of x + y is in option:
Q73
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The stability of $Cu^{2+}$ is more than $Cu^+$ salts in aqueous solution due to -
-
A.
enthalpy of atomization.
-
B.
hydration energy.
-
C.
second ionisation enthalpy.
-
D.
first ionisation enthalpy.
Q73
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The stability of $Cu^{2+}$ is more than $Cu^+$ salts in aqueous solution due to -
-
A.
enthalpy of atomization.
-
B.
hydration energy.
-
C.
second ionisation enthalpy.
-
D.
first ionisation enthalpy.
Q75
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside.
Statement II: When nucleoside is linked to phosphorous acid at 5'-position of sugar moiety, we get nucleotide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q76
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
-
A.
All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer require Ca as the cofactor.
-
B.
The bone in human body is an inert and unchanging substance.
-
C.
Mg plays roles in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission.
-
D.
The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in the human body is estimated to be 0.2 - 0.3 g.
Q77
CHEMISTRY
Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product?
-
A.
CH3CN (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+ -> Product
-
B.
CH3NC (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+ -> Product
-
C.
CH3CONH2 (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+ -> Product
-
D.
CH3CONH2 Br2/KOH -> Product
Q79
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Match List - I with List - II :
List - I: A. Coke, B. Diamond, C. Fullerene, D. Graphite
List - II: I. Carbon atoms are sp3 hybridised, II. Used as a dry lubricant, III. Used as a reducing agent, IV. Cage like molecules
-
A.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
-
B.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
-
C.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
-
D.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Q80
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
Amongst the given options which of the following molecules / ion acts as a Lewis acid?
-
A.
H2O
-
B.
BF3
-
C.
OH-
-
D.
NH3
Q82
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following belongs to barbiturates?
-
A.
Meprobamate
-
B.
Valium
-
C.
Veronal
-
D.
Chlordiazepoxide
Q83
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is:
-
A.
Diamminechloridonitrito - N - platinum (II)
-
B.
Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride
-
C.
Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride
-
D.
Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
Q84
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: A reaction can have zero activation energy.
Reason R: The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q86
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match List - I with List - II :
List - I (Oxoacids of Sulphur)
A. Peroxodisulphuric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Pyrosulphuric acid
D. Sulphurous acid
List -II (Bonds)
I. Two S-OH, Four S=O, One S-O-S
II. Two S-OH, One S=O
III. Two S-OH, Four S=O, One S-O-O-S
IV. Two S-OH, Two S=O
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
-
B.
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
-
C.
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
-
D.
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Q87
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
On balancing the given redox reaction,
$a Cr_2O_7^{2-} + b SO_3^{2-}(aq) + c H^+(aq) \rightarrow 2a Cr^{3+}(aq) + b SO_4^{2-}(aq) + \frac{c}{2} H_2O(l)$
the coefficients $a$, $b$ and $c$ are found to be, respectively -
-
A.
(1) 3, 8, 1
-
B.
(2) 1, 8, 3
-
C.
(3) 8, 1, 3
-
D.
(4) 1, 3, 8
Q88
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
What fraction of one edge centred octahedral void lies in one unit cell of fcc?
-
A.
(1) 1/3
-
B.
(2) 1/4
-
C.
(3) 1/12
-
D.
(4) 1/2
Q92
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The nutrient deficient water bodies lead to eutrophication.
Statement II : Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
-
C.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
-
D.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q93
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range during extraction of iron is :
-
A.
(1) FeO + CO \rightarrow Fe + CO_2
-
B.
(2) C + CO_2 \rightarrow 2CO
-
C.
(3) CaO + SiO_2 \rightarrow CaSiO_3
-
D.
(4) Fe_2O_3 + CO \rightarrow 2FeO + CO_2
Q95
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?
-
A.
(1) $\Delta H = \Delta U + \Delta n_g RT$
-
B.
(2) $\Delta H - \Delta U = -\Delta nRT$
-
C.
(3) $\Delta H + \Delta U = \Delta nR$
-
D.
(4) $\Delta H = \Delta U - \Delta n_g RT$
Q97
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction $A + B \rightleftharpoons C + D$ are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol $L^{-1}$, respectively at 300 K. $\Delta G^0$ for the reaction is (R = 2 cal / mol K)
-
A.
(1) -137.26 cal
-
B.
(2) -1381.80 cal
-
C.
(3) -13.73 cal
-
D.
(4) 1372.60 cal
Q97
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction $A + B \rightleftharpoons C + D$ are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol $L^{-1}$, respectively at 300 K. $\Delta G^\circ$ for the reaction is ($R = 2$ cal / mol K)
-
A.
-137.26 cal
-
B.
-1381.80 cal
-
C.
-13.73 cal
-
D.
1372.60 cal
Q99
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Pumice stone is an example of -
-
A.
(1) gel
-
B.
(2) solid sol
-
C.
(3) foam
-
D.
(4) sol
Q99
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Pumice stone is an example of -
-
A.
gel
-
B.
solid sol
-
C.
foam
-
D.
sol
Q101
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
-
A.
presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait.
-
B.
a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.
-
C.
more than two genes affecting a single character.
-
D.
presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover.
Q102
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as :
-
A.
Dedifferentiation
-
B.
Development
-
C.
Senescence
-
D.
Differentiation
Q103
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by
-
A.
Facilitated Diffusion
-
B.
Passive Transport
-
C.
Active Transport
-
D.
Osmosis
Q104
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?
-
A.
Over exploitation for economic gain
-
B.
Alien species invasions
-
C.
Co-extinctions
-
D.
Habitat loss and fragmentation
Q105
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show
-
A.
Bright blue colour
-
B.
Bright yellow colour
-
C.
Bright orange colour
-
D.
Bright red colour
Q106
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
-
A.
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is correct but R is not correct.
-
C.
A is not correct but R is correct.
-
D.
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q107
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
-
A.
Transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA
-
B.
Transcription of precursor of mRNA
-
C.
Transcription of only snRNAs
-
D.
Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
Q108
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, 'The Earth Summit' was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year :
-
A.
1992
-
B.
1986
-
C.
2002
-
D.
1985
Q109
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1-6-diphosphate.
-
A.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of :
-
A.
Decibels
-
B.
Decameter
-
C.
Kilobase
-
D.
Dobson units
Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of:
-
A.
Decibels
-
B.
Decameter
-
C.
Kilobase
-
D.
Dobson units
Q111
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q111
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q112
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :
-
A.
Selaginella and Salvinia
-
B.
Psilotum and Salvinia
-
C.
Equisetum and Salvinia
-
D.
Lycopodium and Selaginella
Q112
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following:
-
A.
Selaginella and Salvinia
-
B.
Psilotum and Salvinia
-
C.
Equisetum and Salvinia
-
D.
Lycopodium and Selaginella
Q114
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Axile placentation is observed in
-
A.
China rose, Beans and Lupin
-
B.
Tomato, Dianthus and Pea
-
C.
China rose, Petunia and Lemon
-
D.
Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose
Q115
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
-
A.
Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
-
B.
Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers
-
C.
Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
-
D.
Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
Q116
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at
-
A.
700 nm
-
B.
660 nm
-
C.
780 nm
-
D.
680 nm
Q117
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out
-
A.
DNA
-
B.
Histones
-
C.
Polysaccharides
-
D.
RNA
Q118
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in -
-
A.
S phase
-
B.
G1 phase
-
C.
G2 phase
-
D.
M phase
Q119
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?
-
A.
Pachytene
-
B.
Diplotene
-
C.
Diakinesis
-
D.
Zygotene
Q120
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?
-
A.
18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
-
B.
12 ATP and 16 NADPH2
-
C.
18 ATP and 16 NADPH2
-
D.
12 ATP and 12 NADPH2
Q121
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
In the equation GPP - R = NPP, GPP is Gross Primary Productivity, NPP is Net Primary Productivity, R here is
-
A.
Respiratory quotient
-
B.
Respiratory loss
-
C.
Reproductive allocation
-
D.
Photosynthetically active radiation
Q122
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in:
-
A.
bird pollinated plants
-
B.
bat pollinated plants
-
C.
wind pollinated plants
-
D.
insect pollinated plants
Q123
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity period, that leads to early seed production?
-
A.
Gibberellic Acid
-
B.
Zeatin
-
C.
Abscisic Acid
-
D.
Indole-3-butyric Acid
Q124
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?
-
A.
molybdenum
-
B.
magnesium
-
C.
copper
-
D.
manganese
Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
-
A.
All genes that are expressed as proteins.
-
B.
All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
-
C.
Certain important expressed genes.
-
D.
All genes that are expressed as RNA.
Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
-
A.
All genes that are expressed as proteins.
-
B.
All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
-
C.
Certain important expressed genes.
-
D.
All genes that are expressed as RNA.
Q126
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
-
A.
Sutton and Boveri
-
B.
Alfred Sturtevant
-
C.
Henking
-
D.
Thomas Hunt Morgan
Q126
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
-
A.
Sutton and Boveri
-
B.
Alfred Sturtevant
-
C.
Henking
-
D.
Thomas Hunt Morgan
Q127
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height.
Statement II : Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q127
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height.
Statement II: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q128
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of metal are used.
-
A.
Zinc
-
B.
Tungsten or gold
-
C.
Silver
-
D.
Copper
Q129
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels.
Reason R: Cambium is less active in winters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q130
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
-
A.
To trap pollen grains
-
B.
To disperse pollen grains
-
C.
To protect seeds
-
D.
To attract insects
Q131
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are:
-
A.
Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
-
B.
Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
-
C.
Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
-
D.
Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote
Q132
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
-
A.
Kinetin
-
B.
Ethylene
-
C.
2, 4-D
-
D.
GA3
Q133
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
-
A.
Metaphase II
-
B.
Anaphase II
-
C.
Telophase
-
D.
Meta phase I
Q134
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by
-
A.
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
-
B.
Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy
-
C.
Wilkins and Franklin
-
D.
Frederick Griffith
Q135
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because
-
A.
It is a helical molecule.
-
B.
It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
-
C.
It breakes down when iodine reacts with it.
-
D.
It is a disaccharide.
Q136
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II:
List I | List II
A. Oxidative decarboxylation | I. Citrate synthase
B. Glycolysis | II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Oxidative phosphorylation | III. Electron transport system
D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle | IV. EMP pathway
-
A.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
B.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
-
C.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
-
D.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Q137
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?
-
A.
membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, NADP synthase
-
B.
proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase
-
C.
proton pump, electron gradient, NADP synthase
-
D.
membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, ATP synthase
Q138
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Malonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of
-
A.
Amylase
-
B.
Lipase
-
C.
Dinitrogenase
-
D.
Succinic dehydrogenase
Q139
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents.
Reason R: Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q140
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
C, A, B, D
-
B.
C, B, D, A
-
C.
B, D, A, C
-
D.
B, C, D, A
Q141
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II:
List I | List II
A. Cohesion | I. More attraction in liquid phase
B. Adhesion | II. Mutual attraction among water molecules
C. Surface tension | III. Water loss in liquid phase
D. Guttation | IV. Attraction towards polar surfaces
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
B.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
-
C.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
-
D.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Q142
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
-
A.
Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote fisheries.
-
B.
Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body.
-
C.
The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at successive trophic levels.
-
D.
The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage polluted water body consume a lot of oxygen causing the death of aquatic organisms.
Q143
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?
Q144
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II :
List I (Interaction) | List II (Species A and B)
A. Mutualism | I. + (A), O(B)
B. Commensalism | II. -(A), O(B)
C. Amensalism | III. + (A), -(B)
D. Parasitism | IV. + (A), + (B)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
-
B.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
-
C.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
-
D.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Q145
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q147
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
Statement II: In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q148
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
C and D only
-
B.
B and E only
-
C.
A and E only
-
D.
A and B only
Q149
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List I with List II :
List I | List II
A. M Phase | I. Proteins are synthesized
B. G2 Phase | II. Inactive phase
C. Quiescent stage | III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
D. G1 Phase | IV. Equational division
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
-
B.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
-
C.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
D.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Q150
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II :
List I | List II
A. Iron | I. Synthesis of auxin
B. Zinc | II. Component of nitrate reductase
C. Boron | III. Activator of catalase
D. Molybdenum | IV. Cell elongation and differentiation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
-
B.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
-
C.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
D.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Q151
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid.
Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q152
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?
-
A.
B-lymphocytes
-
B.
Basophils
-
C.
Eosinophils
-
D.
TH cells
Q153
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following statements is correct?
-
A.
Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
-
B.
Presence of large amount of nutrients in water restricts 'Algal Bloom'
-
C.
Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality
-
D.
Eutrophication refers to increase in domestic sewage and waste water in lakes.
Q154
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II.
List I | List II
A. P-wave | I. Beginning of systole
B. Q-wave | II. Repolarisation of ventricles
C. QRS complex | III. Depolarisation of atria
D. T-wave | IV. Depolarisation of ventricles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
B.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
C.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
-
D.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Q155
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-
-
A.
Turner's syndrome
-
B.
Klinefelter's syndrome
-
C.
Thalassemia
-
D.
Down's syndrome
Q155
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-
-
A.
Turner's syndrome
-
B.
Klinefelter's syndrome
-
C.
Thalassemia
-
D.
Down's syndrome
Q156
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.
Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q156
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.
Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q157
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q157
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q158
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q159
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
-
A.
YAC
-
B.
pBR322
-
C.
Probe
-
D.
BAC
Q160
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal).
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of $\alpha$ type and two subunits of $\beta$ type.)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q161
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by-
-
A.
Ileo-caecal valve
-
B.
Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
-
C.
Pyloric sphincter
-
D.
Sphincter of Oddi
Q162
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Match List I with List II.
List I (Contraceptive) List II (Type)
A. Vasectomy I. Oral method
B. Coitus interruptus II. Barrier method
C. Cervical caps III. Surgical method
D. Saheli IV. Natural method
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
-
B.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
-
C.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
-
D.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Q163
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
-
A.
Protein synthesis
-
B.
Motility
-
C.
Transportation
-
D.
Nuclear division
Q164
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
-
A.
Gonorrhoea
-
B.
Hepatitis-B
-
C.
HIV Infection
-
D.
Genital herpes
Q165
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Vital capacity of lung is ________.
-
A.
IRV + ERV + TV + RV
-
B.
IRV + ERV + TV - RV
-
C.
IRV + ERV + TV
-
D.
IRV + ERV
Q166
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system?
A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. Chloroplasts D. Golgi complex E. Peroxisomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A, C and E only
-
B.
A and D only
-
C.
A, D and E only
-
D.
B and D only
Q167
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. CCK I. Kidney
B. GIP II. Heart
C. ANF III. Gastric gland
D. ADH IV. Pancreas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
B.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
C.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
-
D.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Q168
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Gene 'a' I. $\beta$-galactosidase
B. Gene 'y' II. Transacetylase
C. Gene 'i' III. Permease
D. Gene 'z' IV. Repressor protein
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
-
B.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
-
C.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
-
D.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Q169
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II with respect to human eye.
List I List II
A. Fovea I. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil.
B. Iris II. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue.
C. Blind spot III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution.
D. Sclera IV. Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
B.
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
-
C.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
-
D.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Q170
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
-
A.
Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
-
B.
Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
-
C.
Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
-
D.
Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole
Q171
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q172
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II.
List I (A) Heroin (B) Marijuana (C) Cocaine (D) Morphine
List II (I) Effect on cardiovascular system (II) Slow down body function (III) Painkiller (IV) Interfere with transport of dopamine
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
-
B.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
C.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
-
D.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Q173
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II.
List I (A) Ringworm (B) Filariasis (C) Malaria (D) Pneumonia
List II (I) Haemophilus influenzae (II) Trichophyton (III) Wuchereria bancrofti (IV) Plasmodium vivax
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
-
B.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
-
C.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
D.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Q174
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q175
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ________.
-
A.
Hemichordata
-
B.
Coelenterata
-
C.
Echinodermata
-
D.
Ctenophora
Q176
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat.
Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q176
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat.
Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
-
B.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
-
C.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q177
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List I with List II.
List I (A) Taenia (B) Paramoecium (C) Periplaneta (D) Pheretima
List II (I) Nephridia (II) Contractile vacuole (III) Flame cells (IV) Urecose gland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
-
B.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
C.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
-
D.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Q177
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List I with List II.
List I (Organism) | List II (Excretory structure)
A. Taenia | I. Nephridia
B. Paramoecium | II. Contractile vacuole
C. Periplaneta | III. Flame cells
D. Pheretima | IV. Urecose gland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
-
B.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
C.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
-
D.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Q178
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A and B only
-
B.
A, B and C only
-
C.
A, C and D only
-
D.
A and D only
Q179
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant.
Statement II: Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q180
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II.
List I (Cells) | List II (Secretion)
A. Peptic cells | I. Mucus
B. Goblet cells | II. Bile juice
C. Oxyntic cells | III. Proenzyme pepsinogen
D. Hepatic cells | IV. HCl and intrinsic factor
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
-
B.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
-
C.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
D.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Q181
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
-
B.
A is true but R is false.
-
C.
A is false but R is true.
-
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q182
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II.
List I (Type of Joint) | List II (Found between)
A. Cartilaginous Joint | I. Between flat skull bones
B. Ball and Socket Joint | II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
C. Fibrous Joint | III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
D. Saddle Joint | IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
B.
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
-
C.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
-
D.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Q183
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis?
-
A.
(1)
-
B.
(2)
-
C.
(3)
-
D.
(4)
Q184
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment?
-
A.
Serum and Urine analysis
-
B.
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique
-
C.
Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) technique
-
D.
Recombinant DNA Technology
Q185
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II:
List I (Interacting species) | List II (Name of Interaction)
A. A Leopard and a Lion in a forest/grassland | I. Competition
B. A Cuckoo laying egg in a Crow's nest | II. Brood parasitism
C. Fungi and root of a higher plant in Mycorrhizae | III. Mutualism
D. A cattle egret and a Cattle in a field | IV. Commensalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
-
B.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
-
C.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
-
D.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Q186
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q186
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: During $G_0$ phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
-
B.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
-
C.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
-
D.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q187
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II:
List I | List II
A. Logistic growth | I. Unlimited resource availability condition
B. Exponential growth | II. Limited resource availability condition
C. Expanding age pyramid | III. The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups
D. Stable age pyramid | IV. The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age group are same
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
-
B.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
C.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
-
D.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Q189
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Select the correct statements:
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
B and D only
-
B.
A, C and E only
-
C.
B and E only
-
D.
A and C only
Q190
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Development of immune system
E. Support the process of R.B.Cs formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
B and C only
-
B.
C and D only
-
C.
D and E only
-
D.
A and D only
Q192
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
E. Basophils are agranulocytes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
C and E only
-
B.
B and C only
-
C.
A and B only
-
D.
D and E only
Q193
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
B, C and D only
-
B.
A, B and E only
-
C.
C, D and E only
-
D.
A and B only
Q193
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
B, C and D only
-
B.
A, B and E only
-
C.
C, D and E only
-
D.
A and B only
Q194
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Match List I with List II:
List I | List II
A. Mast cells | I. Ciliated epithelium
B. Inner surface of bronchiole | II. Areolar connective tissue
C. Blood | III. Cuboidal epithelium
D. Tubular parts of nephron | IV. specialised connective tissue
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
-
B.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
-
C.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
-
D.
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III