NEET 2024 CODE T3 — NEET 2024 Question Paper

Q1 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A tightly wound 100-turn coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (take permeability of free space as 4π × 10^-7 SI units):

A. 4.4 mT
B. 44 T
C. 44 mT
D. 4.4 T

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Material) (A) Diamagnetic (B) Ferromagnetic (C) Paramagnetic (D) Non-magnetic List-II (Susceptibility χ) (I) χ = 0 (II) χ > 0 and ≥ 1 (III) χ ≫ 1 (IV) χ < 0 (a small positive number) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
D. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster’s angle. Then

A. both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.
B. the reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
C. the reflected light will be partially polarised.
D. the refracted light will be completely polarised.

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is Np/Ns = 1/2. The ratio Vs:Vp is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning):

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A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 4
C. 1 : 2
D. 2 : 1

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Q7 PHYSICS Unit 20: Experimental Skills

In a vernier calipers, (N + 1) divisions of vernier scale coincide with N divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:

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A. 1 / 100N
B. 10 / (N + 1)
C. 1 / 10N
D. 1 / 100(N + 1)

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Q8 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young’s modulus, respectively, are 8 × 10^8 N m^-2 and 2 × 10^11 N m^-2, is:

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A. 40 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 0.4 mm

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block A as shown in figure. The mass of blocks A and B are 2 kg and 3 kg, respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block B is:

A. 6 N
B. 10 N
C. zero
D. 4 N

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Q10 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

If the monochromatic source in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then

A. there will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
B. all bright fringes will be of equal width.
C. interference pattern will disappear.
D. there will be a central clear fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer: A. For a solar cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph. B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (µA), is due to majority charge carriers.

A. Both A and B are correct.
B. Both A and B are incorrect.
C. A is correct but B is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect but B is correct.

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

A light ray enters through a right angled prism at point P with the angle of incidence 30° as shown in figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive index of the prism is:

A. 3/4
B. 3/2
C. 5/4
D. 5/2

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Q16 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The potential (V) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector P of magnitude 6 × 10^-4 C m, is ±3.9 × 10^? V. (Take 1/4πϵ0 = 9 × 10^9 SI units) Reason R: V = ±(1/4πϵ0)·P/r^2, where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion

The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the rod is 2400 g cm^2. The length of the 400 g rod is nearly:

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A. 20.7 cm
B. 72.0 cm
C. 8.5 cm
D. 17.5 cm

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, when connected through an external resistance of 4 Ω as shown in the figure is:

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A. 8 V
B. 10 V
C. 4 V
D. 6 V

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Q19 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

Match the List-I with List-II. List-I: Spectral lines of hydrogen for transitions from (A) n = 3 to 2 (B) n = 4 to 2 (C) n = 5 to 2 (D) n = 6 to 2 List-II: Wavelengths (nm) I. 410.2 II. 434.1 III. 656.3 IV. 486.1 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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A. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q20 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are: A. The energy of a photon is E = hν. B. The velocity of a photon is c. C. The momentum of a photon is p = hν/c. D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved. E. Photon possesses positive charge. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A, C and D only
B. A, B, D and E only
C. A and B only
D. A, B, C and D only

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Q21 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are:

A. 288, 82
B. 286, 81
C. 280, 81
D. 286, 80

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Q22 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

At any instant of time t, the displacement of a particle is given by x = 2t - 1 (SI unit) under the influence of force of 5 N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):

A. 7
B. 6
C. 10
D. 5

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Q24 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

The mass of a planet is one-tenth that of the Earth and its diameter is half that of the Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

A. 4.9 m s^-2
B. 3.92 m s^-2
C. 19.6 m s^-2
D. 9.8 m s^-2

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges. Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is v in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel respectively)?

A. Both the points P and Q move with equal speed.
B. Point P has zero speed.
C. Point P moves slower than point Q.
D. Point P moves faster than point Q.

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Q27 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:

A. constant velocity but varying acceleration.
B. varying velocity and varying acceleration.
C. constant velocity.
D. constant acceleration.

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 N m^-1, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:

A. 1.98 mN
B. 99 N
C. 19.8 mN
D. 198 N

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is 9.8 × 10^-6 kg m^2. If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is x × 10^-5 A m^2, then the value of x is:

A. 50π^2
B. 1280π^2
C. 5π^2
D. 128π^2

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one-dimensional collision. Body A moves with velocity v1 while body B is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is v2. The ratio v1 : v2 is:

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A. 4 : 1
B. 1 : 4
C. 1 : 2
D. 2 : 1

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

If x = 5 sin(3πt + π/2) (SI unit) represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are:

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A. 5 cm, 1 s
B. 5 m, 1 s
C. 5 cm, 2 s
D. 5 m, 2 s

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

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A. strain and arc
B. angular speed and stress
C. strain and angle
D. stress and angle

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points C and P (in V) shown in the figure is;

A. 0.5 × 10^5
B. zero
C. 3 × 10^5
D. 1 × 10^5

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Q34 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of ω rpm. The tension in the string is T. If speed becomes 2ω while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes;

A. 4T
B. 2T
C. T
D. 4T

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Q35 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A wire of length l and resistance 100 Ω is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is;

A. 55 Ω
B. 60 Ω
C. 26 Ω
D. 52 Ω

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Q37 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If I is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates;

A. displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in a direction opposite to that of I.
B. displacement current of magnitude greater than I flows but can be in any direction.
C. there is no current.
D. displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in the same direction as I.

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Q38 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves

The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that;

A. they travel with a speed equal to 1/√(μ0ε0)
B. they originate from charges moving with uniform speed.
C. they are transverse in nature.
D. their energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field.

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Q40 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then A. the charge stored in it increases. B. the energy stored in it decreases. C. its capacitance increases. D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same. E. the product of charge and voltage increases. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. B, D and E only
B. A, B and C only
C. A, B and E only
D. A, C and E only

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Q42 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

A metallic bar of Young’s modulus, 0.5 × 10^11 N m^-2 and coefficient of linear thermal expansion 10^-5 °C^-1, length 1 m and area of cross-section 10^-3 m^2 is heated from 0°C to 100°C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

A. 100 × 10^3 N
B. 2 × 10^3 N
C. 52 × 10^3 N
D. 50 × 10^3 N

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Q42 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

A metallic bar of Young’s modulus 0.5 × 10^11 N m^-2 and coefficient of linear thermal expansion 10^-5 °C^-1, length 1 m and area of cross-section 10^-3 m^2 is heated from 0°C to 100°C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

A. 100 × 10^3 N
B. 2 × 10^3 N
C. 52 × 10^3 N
D. 50 × 10^3 N

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Q43 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is:

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A. 17
B. 32
C. 34
D. 28

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Q44 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle 60° with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:

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A. 2M
B. M/3
C. M
D. M/2

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Q45 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

A 10 μF capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (π = 3.14):

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A. 1.20 A
B. 0.35 A
C. 0.58 A
D. 0.93 A

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Q46 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. They are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : 3
C. 1 : 1
D. 2 : 9

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Q48 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is 2^x times its original time period. Then the value of x is:

A. 3
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

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Q49 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of earth of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R from the surface of the earth is:

A. GM^2 m / R
B. GM^3 m / R
C. 5GMm / 6R
D. 2GMm / 3R

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Q50 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to: A. hold the sheet there if it is magnetic. B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic. C. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting. D. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both non-conducting and non-polar. Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

A. A, C and D only
B. C only
C. B and D only
D. A and C only

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Q51 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Conversion) A. 1 mol of H2O to O2 B. 1 mol of MnO4^- to Mn2+ C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaCl2 D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3 List-II (Number of Faraday required) I. 3F II. 2F III. 1F IV. 5F Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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Q52 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

A. H2 + Cl2 → 2 HCl
B. BaCl2 + Na2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2 NaCl
C. Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
D. 2 KClO3 + I2 → 2 KIO3 + Cl2

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Q54 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

Fehling’s solution ‘A’ is

A. alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)
B. aqueous sodium citrate
C. aqueous copper sulphate
D. alkaline copper sulphate

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Q55 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution; the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to

A. Zero mg
B. 200 mg
C. 750 mg
D. 250 mg

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Compound) A. NH3 B. BrF5 C. XeF4 D. SF6 List-II (Shape/geometry) I. Trigonal pyramidal II. Square planar III. Octahedral IV. Square pyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

The E° value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is more positive than that of Cr3+/Cr2+ or Fe3+/Fe2+ due to change of

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A. d4 to d5 configuration
B. d3 to d5 configuration
C. d5 to d4 configuration
D. d5 to d2 configuration

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Q58 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Process) A. Isothermal process B. Isochoric process C. Isobaric process D. Adiabatic process List-II (Conditions) I. No heat exchange II. Carried out at constant temperature III. Carried out at constant volume IV. Carried out at constant pressure Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Process) A. Isothermal process B. Isochoric process C. Isobaric process D. Adiabatic process List-II (Conditions) I. No heat exchange II. Carried out at constant temperature III. Carried out at constant volume IV. Carried out at constant pressure Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

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Q59 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of

A. orientation of reactant molecules during collision.
B. rate constant at two different temperatures.
C. rate constant at standard temperature.
D. probability of collision.

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Q60 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

A compound with a molecular formula of C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

A. 2,3-dimethylbutane
B. 2,2-dimethylbutane
C. n-hexane
D. 2-methylpentane

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Q61 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

‘Spin only’ magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions? A. Ti3+ B. Cr2+ C. Mn2+ D. Fe2+ E. Sc3+ Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. B and C only
B. A and D only
C. B and D only
D. A and E only

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Q62 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. O < F < N < C < Si
B. F < O < N < C < Si
C. Si < C < N < O < F
D. Si < C < O < N < F

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Q63 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?

A. CH3CH(OH)CH3
B. (CH3)3COH
C. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
D. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3

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Q64 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Both [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [CoF6]3− complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour. Statement II: [Co(NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF6]3− is paramagnetic. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q65 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S. Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, H2O is expected to have lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H2O, it has higher boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q66 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure

Match List I with List II. List I (Quantum Number) A. ml B. ms C. l D. n List II (Information provided) I. shape of orbital II. size of orbital III. orientation of orbital IV. orientation of spin of electron Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
C. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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Q67 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

Match List I with List II. List I (Reaction) A. B. C. D. List II (Reagents/Condition) I. Anhyd. AlCl3 II. CrO3 III. KMnO4/KOH, Δ IV. (i) O3 (ii) Zn-H2O Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
B. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
C. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q67 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

Match List I with List II. List I (Reaction) A. B. C. D. List II (Reagents/Condition) I. Anhyd. AlCl3 II. CrO3 III. KMnO4/KOH, Δ IV. (i) O3 (ii) Zn-H2O Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
B. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
C. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are A. Tollen’s reagent B. Schiff’s reagent C. HCN D. NH2OH E. NaHSO3 Choose the correct options from the given below:

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A. B and E
B. E and D
C. B and C
D. A and D

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

Match List I with List II. List I (Molecule) A. ethane B. ethene C. carbon molecule, C2 D. ethyne List II (Number and types of bond/s between two carbon atoms) I. one σ-bond and two π-bonds II. two π-bonds III. one σ-bond IV. one σ-bond and one π-bond Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
C. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show –2 oxidation state?

A. Te
B. Po
C. O
D. Se

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

For the reaction 2A ⇌ B + C, Kc = 4 × 10^-3. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: [A] = [B] = [C] = 2 × 10^-3 M. Then, which of the following is correct?

A. Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
B. Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
C. Reaction is at equilibrium.
D. Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.

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Q74 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

In which of the following equilibria, Kp and Kc are NOT equal?

A. CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)
B. 2 BrCl(g) ⇌ Br2(g) + Cl2(g)
C. PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
D. H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g)

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Q75 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order: n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane Statement II: When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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Q77 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

The energy of an electron in the ground state (n = 1) for He+ ion is –x J, then that for an electron in n = 2 state for Be3+ ion in J is:

A. –4x
B. –4x/9
C. –x
D. –x/9

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Q78 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

In which of the following processes entropy increases? A. A liquid evaporates to vapour. B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K. C. 2NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g) D. Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A, C and D
B. C and D
C. A and C
D. A, B and D

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

On heating some solid substance change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as:

A. Distillation
B. Chromatography
C. Crystallization
D. Sublimation

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds

On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through the liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as:

A. Distillation
B. Chromatography
C. Crystallization
D. Sublimation

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Q80 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Complex) A. [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 B. [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br C. [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] D. [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 List-II (Type of isomerism) I. Solvate isomerism II. Linkage isomerism III. Ionization isomerism IV. Coordination isomerism Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
B. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
C. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
D. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction. Statement II: Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction. Statement II: Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q82 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N. Choose the correct answer from options given below:

A. Li < Be < C < B < N
B. Li < Be < N < B < C
C. Li < Be < B < C < N
D. Li < B < Be < C < N

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Q83 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

The highest number of helium atoms is in

A. 4 g of helium
B. 2.271098 L of helium at STP
C. 4 mol of helium
D. 4 u of helium

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

The Henry’s law constant (K_H) values of three gases A, B and C in water are 145, 2 × 10^-5 and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:

A. A > C > B
B. A > B > C
C. B > A > C
D. B > C > A

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and the remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is: (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)

A. AB2C2
B. ABC4
C. A2BC2
D. ABC3

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Q87 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens

The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are: 3ROH + PCl3 → 3RCl + A ROH + PCl5 → RCl + HCl + B

A. H3PO4 and POCl3
B. H3PO3 and POCl3
C. POCl3 and H3PO3
D. POCl3 and H3PO4

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Q88 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

The plot of osmotic pressure (Π) vs concentration (mol L^-1) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol^-1. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is: (Use R = 0.083 L bar mol^-1 K^-1)

A. 25.73°C
B. 12.05°C
C. 37°C
D. 310°C

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Given below are two statements: Statement I: [Co(NH3)6]3+ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is a heteroleptic complex. Statement II: [Co(NH3)6]3+ has only one kind of ligands but [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has more than one kind of ligands. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q91 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

During the preparation of Mohr’s salt solution (ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe2+ ion?

A. dilute nitric acid
B. dilute sulphuric acid
C. dilute hydrochloric acid
D. concentrated sulphuric acid

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Q92 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Identify the correct answer.

A. Dipole moment of NF3 is greater than that of NH3.
B. Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO3^2− ion.
C. Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.
D. BF3 has non-zero dipole moment.

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Q93 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI. A. Al3+ B. Cu2+ C. Ba2+ D. Co2+ E. Mg2+ Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

A. E, C, D, B, A
B. E, A, B, C, D
C. B, A, D, C, E
D. B, C, A, D, E

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Q93 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI. A. Al3+ B. Cu2+ C. Ba2+ D. Co2+ E. Mg2+ Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

A. E, C, D, B, A
B. E, A, B, C, D
C. B, A, D, C, E
D. B, C, A, D, E

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Q94 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence: CH3CH2CH2I ──NaCN──> A ──(partial hydrolysis, OH−/NaOH, Br2)──> B ──> C (major)

A. butanamide
B. α-bromobutanoic acid
C. propylamine
D. butylamine

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Q94 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence: CH3CH2CH2I --(NaCN)--> A --(Partial hydrolysis / Br2, NaOH)--> B --> C Choose the correct option:

A. butanamide
B. α-bromobutanoic acid
C. propylamine
D. butylamine

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Q95 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation. Given R = 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1, log 4 = 0.6021

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. 3.80 kJ/mol
B. 3804 kJ/mol
C. 38.04 kJ/mol
D. 380.4 kJ/mol

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Q96 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of N2 = 3.0 × 10−3 M, O2 = 4.2 × 10−3 M and NO = 2.8 × 10−3 M. 2NO(g) ⇌ N2(g) + O2(g) If 0.1 mol L−1 of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation (α) of NO(g) at equilibrium?

A. 0.8889
B. 0.717
C. 0.00889
D. 0.0889

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Q97 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is: (Given R = 2.0 cal K−1 mol−1)

A. 413.14 calories
B. 100 calories
C. 0 calorie
D. −413.14 calories

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Q98 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is: (Given: Molar mass of Cu : 63 g mol−1, 1F = 96487 C)

A. 31.5 g
B. 0.0315 g
C. 3.15 g
D. 0.315 g

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Q100 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is

A. Gd3+ and Eu3+
B. Pm3+ and Sm3+
C. Ce4+ and Yb2+
D. Ce3+ and Eu2+

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Identify the set of correct statements: A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar B. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water. C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting. D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like. E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A, C, D and E only
B. B, C, D and E only
C. C, D and E only
D. A, B, C and D only

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

A. Competitive inhibition
B. Enzyme activation
C. Cofactor inhibition
D. Feedback inhibition

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Bulliform cells are responsible for

A. Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
B. Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
C. Inward curling of leaves in monocots.
D. Protecting the plant from salt stress.

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis? A. Light B. Chlorophyll C. CO2 D. ATP E. NADPH Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. C, D and E only
B. D and E only
C. A, B and C only
D. B, C and D only

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for

A. Dedifferentiation
B. Maturation
C. Differentiation
D. Redifferentiation

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example of:

A. Dedifferentiation
B. Maturation
C. Differentiation
D. Redifferentiation

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Q108 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence, and it consists of:

A. 4 bp
B. 10 bp
C. 8 bp
D. 6 bp

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Q108 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:

A. 4 bp
B. 10 bp
C. 8 bp
D. 6 bp

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification. B. Tropical environments are more seasonal. C. More solar energy is available in tropics. D. Constant environments promote niche specialization. E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A, B and E only
B. A, B and D only
C. A, C, D and E only
D. A and B only

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Tropical regions show the greatest level of species richness because:

A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.
B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.
C. More solar energy is available in tropics.
D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?

A. Mode of spore formation
B. Fruiting body
C. Morphology of mycelium
D. Mode of nutrition

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO2 fixed in the Calvin cycle?

A. 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
B. 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
C. 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
D. 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss: A. Overexploitation B. Co-extinction C. Mutation D. Habitat loss and fragmentation E. Migration. Choose the correct option:

A. A, B and E only
B. A, B and D only
C. A, C and D only
D. A, B, C and D only

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

A. Differentiation
B. Somatic hybridization
C. Totipotency
D. Micropropagation

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is dN/dt = rN[(K - N)/K]. From this equation, K indicates:

A. Carrying capacity
B. Population density
C. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
D. Biotic potential

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during:

A. Anaphase
B. Telophase
C. Prophase
D. Metaphase

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b).

A. (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
B. (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
C. (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
D. (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Rhizopus, B. Ustilago, C. Puccinia, D. Agaricus List II: I. Mushroom, II. Smut fungus, III. Bread mould, IV. Rust fungus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

In a plant, black seed colour (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed colour (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

A. Bb
B. BB/Bb
C. BB
D. bb

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

A. Only pink flowered plants
B. Red, pink as well as white flowered plants
C. Only red flowered plants
D. Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene, B. Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent, C. Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parents, D. Number of chromosome sets in plant List II: I. Back cross, II. Ploidy, III. Allele, IV. Test cross Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

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Q121 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

A. Glycerides
B. Carbohydrates
C. Amino acids
D. Phospholipids

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Q121 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

A. Glycerides
B. Carbohydrates
C. Amino acids
D. Phospholipids

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Clostridium butylicum, B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae, C. Trichoderma polysporum, D. Streptococcus sp. List II: I. Ethanol, II. Streptokinase, III. Butyric acid, IV. Cyclosporin-A Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?

A. Pisum
B. Sesbania
C. Datura
D. Cassia

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Q125 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and downstream end;

A. Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
B. Promoter, Structural gene, Terminator
C. Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
D. Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only the gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism? A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism. B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient. C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA. D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integrated part of chromosome. E. It shows ability to replicate. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. B and C only
B. A and E only
C. A and B only
D. D and E only

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin:

A. does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
B. can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
C. promotes apical dominance.
D. promotes abscission of mature leaves only.

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

A. Flavin
B. Haem
C. Zinc
D. Niacin

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of

A. Permease
B. Polymerase
C. Beta-galactosidase
D. Acetylase

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance? A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive. B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F2 generation. C. Factors occur in pair in normal diploid plants. D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor. E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. B, C and D only
B. A, B, C, D and E
C. A, B and C only
D. A, C, D and E only

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Q131 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II: Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue. Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage. Statement II: The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q134 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) Nucleolus (B) Centriole (C) Leucoplasts (D) Golgi apparatus List-II (I) Site of formation of glycolipid (II) Organization like the cartwheel (III) Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis (IV) For storing nutrients Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
C. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

List of endangered species was released by:

A. FAO
B. IUCN
C. GEAC
D. WWF

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

The DNA present in chloroplast is:

A. Linear, single stranded
B. Circular, single stranded
C. Linear, double stranded
D. Circular, double stranded

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Q137 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

A. Protoplasts
B. Pollens
C. Callus
D. Somatic embryos

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield?

A. Cytokinin
B. Abscisic acid
C. Auxin
D. Gibberellin

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) Frederick Griffith (B) Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod (C) Har Gobind Khorana (D) Meselson & Stahl List-II (I) Genetic code (II) Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication (III) Transformation (IV) Lac operon Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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Q141 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) GLUT-4 (B) Insulin (C) Trypsin (D) Collagen List-II (I) Hormone (II) Enzyme (III) Intercellular ground substances (IV) Enables glucose transport into cell. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
C. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In C3 plants, some O2 binds RuBisCO, hence CO2 fixation is decreased. Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q143 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
B. Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid
C. Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid
D. Succinic acid → Malic acid

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Q144 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) Citric acid cycle (B) Glycolysis (C) Electron transport system (D) Proton gradient List-II (I) Cytoplasm (II) Mitochondrial matrix (III) Intermembrane space of mitochondria (IV) Inner mitochondrial membrane Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

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Q145 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E. coli?

A. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5'→3' as well as 3'→5' direction.
B. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5'→3' direction.
C. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 3'→5'.
D. The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5'→3'.

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Q146 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is 100x kcal m^-2 yr^-1, what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?

A. 10x kcal m^-2 yr^-1
B. 100x/3 kcal m^-2 yr^-1
C. x/10 kcal m^-2 yr^-1
D. x kcal m^-2 yr^-1

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (A) Rose, (B) Pea, (C) Cotton, (D) Mango List-II: (I) Twisted aestivation, (II) Perigynous flower, (III) Drupe, (IV) Marginal placentation Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (A) Robert May, (B) Alexander von Humboldt, (C) Paul Ehrlich, (D) David Tilman List-II: (I) Species-area relationship, (II) Long term ecosystem experiment using outdoor plots, (III) Global species diversity at about 7 million, (IV) Rivet popper hypothesis Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
C. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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Q149 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Types of stamen): (A) Monoadelphous, (B) Diadelphous, (C) Polyadelphous, (D) Epiphyllous List-II (Example): (I) Citrus, (II) Pea, (III) Lily, (IV) China-rose Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
D. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

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Q150 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements. In the members of Phaeophyceae: A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores. B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only. C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin. D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll. E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A, C, D and E only
B. A, B, C and E only
C. A, B, C and D only
D. B, C, D and E only

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Match List I with List II: List I: (A) Typhoid, (B) Leishmaniasis, (C) Ringworm, (D) Filariasis List II: (I) Fungus, (II) Nematode, (III) Protozoa, (IV) Bacteria Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
C. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

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Q152 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Match List I with List II: List I: (A) Non-medicated IUD, (B) Copper releasing IUD, (C) Hormone releasing IUD, (D) Implants List II: (I) Multiload 375, (II) Progestasert, (III) Lippes loop, (IV) LNG-20 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
D. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

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Q153 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity. Statement II: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q154 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on:

A. 8th and 9th segment
B. 11th segment
C. 5th segment
D. 10th segment

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Q155 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List I with List II: List I A. Pons B. Hypothalamus C. Medulla D. Cerebellum List II I. Provides additional space for neurons, regulates posture and balance II. Controls respiration and gastric secretions III. Connects different regions of the brain IV. Neurosecretory cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
C. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q156 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

A. Progesterone
B. Glucagon
C. Cortisol
D. Testosterone

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Q158 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in the human body.

A. (a) Skeletal - Biceps (b) Involuntary - Intestine (c) Smooth - Heart
B. (a) Involuntary - Nose tip (b) Skeletal - Bone (c) Cardiac - Heart
C. (a) Smooth - Toes (b) Skeletal - Legs (c) Cardiac - Heart
D. (a) Skeletal - Triceps (b) Smooth - Stomach (c) Cardiac - Heart

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Q159 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Following are the stages of cell division: A. Gap 2 phase B. Cytokinesis C. Synthesis phase D. Karyokinesis E. Gap 1 phase Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below:

A. B-D-E-A-C
B. E-C-A-D-B
C. C-E-D-A-B
D. E-B-D-A-C

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Q160 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following are autoimmune disorders? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Muscular dystrophy E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. B, C & E only
B. C, D & E only
C. A, B & D only
D. A, B & E only

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Q161 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List I with List II: List I A. Lipase B. Nuclease C. Protease D. Amylase List II I. Peptide bond II. Ester bond III. Glycosidic bond IV. Phosphodiester bond Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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Q162 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

The flippers of the penguins and dolphins are examples of the

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A. Convergent evolution
B. Divergent evolution
C. Adaptive radiation
D. Natural selection

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Q163 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List I with List II: List I A. Expiratory capacity B. Functional residual capacity C. Vital capacity D. Inspiratory capacity List II I. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume II. Tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume III. Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume IV. Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
B. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q164 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

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A. Gene migration
B. Constant gene pool
C. Genetic recombination
D. Genetic drift

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in the correct sequence (past to recent). A. Homo habilis B. Homo sapiens C. Homo neanderthalensis D. Homo erectus Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:

A. C-B-D-A
B. A-D-C-B
C. D-A-C-B
D. B-A-D-C

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart: A. AV bundle B. Purkinje fibres C. AV node D. Bundle branches E. SA node Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below:

A. B-D-E-C-A
B. E-A-D-B-C
C. E-C-A-D-B
D. A-E-C-B-D

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Q167 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

A. Low pCO2 and high H+ concentration
B. Low pCO2 and high temperature
C. High pO2 and high pCO2
D. High pO2 and lesser H+ concentration

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Q168 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

Match List I with List II: List I A. α-1 antitrypsin B. Cry IAb C. Cry IAc D. Enzyme replacement therapy List II I. Cotton bollworm II. ADA deficiency III. Emphysema IV. Corn borer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q169 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male. Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A is true but R is false
B. A is false but R is true
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

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Q170 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

The following diagram showing restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y' genes:

A. The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication of plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
B. Gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and 'Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
C. The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of plasmid.
D. The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of plasmid.

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Q171 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Match List I with List II: List I A. Cocaine B. Heroin C. Morphine D. Marijuana List II I. Effective sedative in surgery II. Cannabis sativa III. Erythroxylum IV. Papaver somniferum Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Consider the following statements: A. Annelids are true coelomates. B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates. C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates. D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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A. C only
B. D only
C. B only
D. A only

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Q173 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes. Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)

A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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Q174 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Match List I with List II: List I List II A. Fibrous joints I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited movement B. Cartilaginous joints II. Humerus and pectoral girdle, rotational movement C. Hinge III. Skull, don't allow any movement D. Ball and socket joints IV. Knee, help in locomotion Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

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Q175 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

A. Lactational amenorrhea
B. Vaults
C. Coitus interruptus
D. Periodic abstinence

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Q176 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match List I with List II: List-I List-II A. Pleurobrachia I. Mollusca B. Radula II. Ctenophora C. Stomochord III. Osteichthyes D. Air bladder IV. Hemichordata Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

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Q177 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Match List I with List II: List-I List-II A. Axoneme I. Centriole B. Cartwheel pattern II. Cilia and flagella C. Crista III. Chromosome D. Satellite IV. Mitochondria Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-II

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Q178 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures.
B. Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and foam control system.
C. A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product.
D. Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type.

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Q179 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Match List I with List II: List I (Sub phases of prophase I) List II (Specific characters) A. Diakinesis I. Synaptonemal complex formation B. Pachytene II. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata C. Zygotene III. Chromosomes look like thin threads D. Leptotene IV. Appearance of recombination nodules Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
D. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

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Q180 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List I with List II: List I List II A. Common cold I. Plasmodium B. Haemozoin II. Typhoid C. Widal test III. Rhinoviruses D. Allergy IV. Dust mites Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
B. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

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Q181 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby. Reason R: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the newborn baby. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. A is correct but R is not correct.
B. A is not correct but R is correct.
C. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

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Q182 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match List I with List II: List-I List-II A. Pterophyllum I. Hag fish B. Myxine II. Saw fish C. Pristis III. Angel fish D. Exocoetus IV. Flying fish Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q182 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match List I with List II: List I A. Pterophyllum B. Myxine C. Pristis D. Exocoetus List II I. Hag fish II. Saw fish III. Angel fish IV. Flying fish Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q183 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

The 'Ti plasmid' of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

A. Tumor inducing plasmid
B. Temperature independent plasmid
C. Tumour inhibiting plasmid
D. Tumor independent plasmid

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Q183 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

The 'Ti plasmid' of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

A. Tumor inducing plasmid
B. Temperature independent plasmid
C. Tumour inhibiting plasmid
D. Tumor independent plasmid

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Q184 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

A. Infundibulum
B. Ampulla
C. Uterine fundus
D. Isthmus

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Q185 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Match List I with List II: List I A. Down's syndrome B. α-Thalassemia C. β-Thalassemia D. Klinefelter's syndrome List II I. 11th chromosome II. 'X' chromosome III. 21st chromosome IV. 16th chromosome Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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Q186 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

The following are the statements about non-chordates: A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits. B. Notochord is absent. C. Central nervous system is dorsal. D. Heart is dorsal if present. E. Post anal tail is absent. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. B, D and E only
B. B, C and D only
C. A and C only
D. A, B and D only

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Q187 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match List I with List II: List I A. Mesozoic Era B. Proterozoic Era C. Cenozoic Era D. Paleozoic Era List II I. Lower invertebrates II. Fish & Amphibia III. Birds & Reptiles IV. Mammals Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q188 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum. Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
B. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
C. Both statement I and Statement II are correct.
D. Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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Q189 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis. GnRH ↓ LH (A) ↓ ↓ (B) (C) ↓ ↓ Androgens Factors ↓ ↓ Formation of spermatids (D)

A. FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.
B. ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
C. FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis
D. ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.

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