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NEET-2024-R6

180 questions from this NEET 2024 paper. Log in to view the correct answer and explanation for each question.

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Q1 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is $\frac{N_P}{N_S} = \frac{1}{2}$. The ratio $V_S : V_P$ is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning) :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 2 : 1
  • B. 1 : 1
  • C. 1 : 4
  • D. 1 : 2

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Q1 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is $\frac{N_P}{N_S} = \frac{1}{2}$. The ratio $V_S : V_P$ is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 2:1
  • B. 1:1
  • C. 1:4
  • D. 1:2

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as $4\pi \times 10^{-7}$ SI units):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 4.4 T
  • B. 4.4 mT
  • C. 44 T
  • D. 44 mT

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as $4\pi \times 10^{-7}$ SI units):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 4.4 T
  • B. 4.4 mT
  • C. 44 T
  • D. 44 mT

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is $9.8 \times 10^{-6}\,kg\,m^2$. If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is $x \times 10^{-5}\,Am^2$, then the value of 'x' is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. 128 $\pi^2$
  • B. 50 $\pi^2$
  • C. 1280 $\pi^2$
  • D. 5 $\pi^2$

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 $Nm^{-1}$, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 198 N
  • B. 1.98 mN
  • C. 99 N
  • D. 19.8 mN

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 Nm$^{-1}$, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 198 N
  • B. 1.98 mN
  • C. 99 N
  • D. 19.8 mN

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is v in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. Point P moves faster than point Q.
  • B. Both the points P and Q move with equal speed.
  • C. Point P has zero speed.
  • D. Point P moves slower than point Q.

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is $v$ in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are the highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. Point P moves faster than point Q.
  • B. Both the points P and Q move with equal speed.
  • C. Point P has zero speed.
  • D. Point P moves slower than point Q.

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
If $x = 5 \sin(\pi t + \frac{\pi}{3})\,m$ represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 5 m, 2 s
  • B. 5 cm, 1 s
  • C. 5 m, 1 s
  • D. 5 cm, 2 s

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Q8 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
A wire of length 'l' and resistance $100\,\Omega$ is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 52 $\Omega$
  • B. 55 $\Omega$
  • C. 60 $\Omega$
  • D. 26 $\Omega$

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the following truth table: A | B | Y 0 | 0 | 1 0 | 1 | 0 1 | 0 | 1 1 | 1 | 0 The expression for the output Y is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. A.B + \bar{A}
  • B. \bar{B}
  • C. B
  • D. A.B + \bar{A}

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Q10 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. stress and angle
  • B. strain and arc
  • C. angular speed and stress
  • D. strain and angle

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Q11 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points C and P (in V) shown in the figure is: (Take $\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9$ SI units)
Question 11 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. 1 $\times$ 10^5
  • B. 0.5 $\times$ 10^5
  • C. zero
  • D. 3 $\times$ 10^5

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Q12 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Match List-I with List-II.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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Q13 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
Match List I with List II. Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for transitions from:
  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges. Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. the refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • B. both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • C. the reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
  • D. the reflected light will be partially polarised.

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Q16 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The graph which shows the variation of $(1/\lambda^2)$ and its kinetic energy, E is (where $\lambda$ is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):
Question 16 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. (1)
  • B. (2)
  • C. (3)
  • D. (4)

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. constant acceleration.
  • B. constant velocity but varying acceleration.
  • C. varying velocity and varying acceleration.
  • D. constant velocity.

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are: A. The energy of a photon is $E = hv$. B. The velocity of a photon is c. C. The momentum of a photon, $p = \frac{hv}{c}$. D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved. E. Photon possesses positive charge. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. A, B, C and D only
  • B. A, C and D only
  • C. A, B, D and E only
  • D. A and B only

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Q19 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In the nuclear emission stated above: $_{82}^{290}X \xrightarrow{\alpha} Y \xrightarrow{e^+} Z \xrightarrow{\beta^-} P \xrightarrow{e^-} Q$. The mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. 286, 80
  • B. 288, 82
  • C. 286, 81
  • D. 280, 81

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Q20 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is:
Question 20 image
  • A. 1 µF
  • B. 0.5 µF
  • C. 4 µF
  • D. 2 µF

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Q21 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is $10 V$ and internal resistance $1 \Omega$, when connected through an external resistance of $4 \Omega$ as shown in the figure is:
Question 21 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 6 V
  • B. 8 V
  • C. 10 V
  • D. 4 V

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Q22 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
If the monochromatic source in Young's double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. there will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
  • B. there will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
  • C. all bright fringes will be of equal width.
  • D. interference pattern will disappear.

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Q23 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A horizontal force $10 N$ is applied to a block A as shown in figure. The mass of blocks A and B are $2 kg$ and $3 kg$, respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block B is:
Question 23 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 4 N
  • B. 6 N
  • C. 10 N
  • D. zero

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Q23 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A horizontal force $10\text{ N}$ is applied to a block A as shown in figure. The mass of blocks A and B are $2\text{ kg}$ and $3\text{ kg}$, respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block B is:
Question 23 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 4 N
  • B. 6 N
  • C. 10 N
  • D. zero

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Q24 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle abcda. The work done by the gas along the path bc is:
Question 24 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 30 J
  • B. -90 J
  • C. -60 J
  • D. zero

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Q24 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle abeda. The work done by the gas along the path be is:
Question 24 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 30 J
  • B. -90 J
  • C. -60 J
  • D. zero

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's modulus, respectively, are $8 \times 10^8 N m^{-2}$ and $2 \times 10^{11} N m^{-2}$, is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 0.4 mm
  • B. 40 mm
  • C. 8 mm
  • D. 4 mm

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The maximum elongation of a steel wire of $1\text{ m}$ length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's modulus, respectively, are $8 \times 10^8\text{ N m}^{-2}$ and $2 \times 10^{11}\text{ N m}^{-2}$, is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. 0.4 mm
  • B. 40 mm
  • C. 8 mm
  • D. 4 mm

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
The output (Y) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a:
Question 26 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. NOR gate
  • B. OR gate
  • C. AND gate
  • D. NAND gate

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
The output (Y) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a:
Question 26 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. NOR gate
  • B. OR gate
  • C. AND gate
  • D. NAND gate

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Q27 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one dimensional collision. The body A moves with velocity $v_1$ while body B is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is $v_2$. The ratio $v_1 : v_2$ is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 2:1
  • B. 4:1
  • C. 1:4
  • D. 1:2

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer: A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph. B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in ($\mu\text{A}$), is due to majority charge carriers.
Question 28 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. A is incorrect but B is correct.
  • B. Both A and B are correct.
  • C. Both A and B are incorrect.
  • D. A is correct but B is incorrect.

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer : - Statement A: For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph. - Statement B: In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (μA), is due to majority charge carriers.
Question 28 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. A is incorrect but B is correct.
  • B. Both A and B are correct.
  • C. Both A and B are incorrect.
  • D. A is correct but B is incorrect.

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:
Question 29 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. BA and CD
  • B. AB and CD
  • C. BA and DC
  • D. AB and DC

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:
Question 29 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. BA and CD
  • B. AB and CD
  • C. BA and DC
  • D. AB and DC

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The potential (V) at any axial point, at $2\text{ m}$ distance (r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector $\vec{p}$ of magnitude $4 \times 10^{-6}\text{ C m}$, is $\pm 9 \times 10^3\text{ V}$. (Take $\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9\text{ SI units}$). Reason R: $V = \pm \frac{2P}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2}$, where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at $2\text{ m}$ from the centre of the dipole.
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is true but R is false.
  • C. A is false but R is true.
  • D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : The potential (V) at any axial point, at 2 m distance(r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector $\vec{P}$ of magnitude, $4 \times 10^{-6}$ C m. is $\pm 9 \times 10^3$ V . (Take $\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9$ SI units) Reason R : $V = \pm \frac{2P}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2}$, where $r$ is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • B. A is true but R is false.
  • C. A is false but R is true.
  • D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
At any instant of time t, the displacement of any particle is given by $s = 2t-1$ (SI unit) under the influence of force of 5N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):
  • A. 5
  • B. 7
  • C. 6
  • D. 10

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 20: Experimental Skills
In a vernier calipers, $(N + 1)$ divisions of vernier scale coincide with $N$ divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. $\frac{1}{100(N + 1)}$
  • B. $\frac{1}{100N}$
  • C. $\frac{10}{N + 1}$
  • D. $\frac{1}{10N}$

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the rod is 2400 g cm$^2$. The length of the 400 g rod is nearly :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 17.5 cm
  • B. 20.7 cm
  • C. 72.0 cm
  • D. 8.5 cm

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Q34 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
A light ray enters through a right angled prism at point P with the angle of incidence 30° as shown in figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive index of the prism is:
Question 34 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. $\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}$
  • B. $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}$
  • C. $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$
  • D. $\frac{\sqrt{5}}{4}$

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Q35 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
The mass of a planet is $\frac{1}{10}$ th that of the earth and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 9.8 m s$^{-2}$
  • B. 4.9 m s$^{-2}$
  • C. 3.92 m s$^{-2}$
  • D. 19.6 m s$^{-2}$

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Q36 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. the energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field.
  • B. they travel with a speed equal to $\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \epsilon_0}}$
  • C. they originate from charges moving with uniform speed.
  • D. they are transverse in nature.

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Q37 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
The velocity (v)-time (t) plot of the motion of a body is shown below. The acceleration (a)-time (t) graph that best suits this motion is :
Question 37 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Option 1 (positive, zero, negative acceleration)
  • B. Option 2 (positive, zero, negative acceleration pulses)
  • C. Option 3 (negative, zero, positive acceleration pulses)
  • D. Option 4 (variable)

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Q38 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
A metallic bar of Young's modulus, $0.5 \times 10^{11}$ N m$^{-2}$ and coefficient of linear thermal expansion $10^{-5}$ °C$^{-1}$, length 1 m and area of cross-section $10^{-3}$ m$^2$ is heated from 0°C to 100°C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. 50 $\times 10^3$ N
  • B. 100 $\times 10^3$ N
  • C. 2 $\times 10^3$ N
  • D. 5 $\times 10^3$ N

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Q39 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is $\frac{x}{2}$ times its original time period. Then the value of x is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. $\sqrt{2}$
  • B. $2\sqrt{3}$
  • C. 4
  • D. $\sqrt{3}$

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Q40 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.
Question 40 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. Circuit 1
  • B. Circuit 2
  • C. Circuit 3
  • D. Circuit 4

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Q41 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A force defined by $F = \alpha t^2 + \beta t$ acts on a particle at a given time $t$. The factor which is dimensionless, if $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are constants, is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. $\alpha / \beta$
  • B. $\alpha \beta t$
  • C. $\alpha \beta / t$
  • D. $\beta t / \alpha$

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Q43 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
An iron bar of length $L$ has magnetic moment $M$. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle $60^\circ$ with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. $M/2$
  • B. $2M$
  • C. $M/\sqrt{3}$
  • D. $M$

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Q44 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass $m$ from the surface of earth of mass $M$ and radius $R$ in a circular orbit at an altitude of $2R$ from the surface of the earth is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. $2GmM / 3R$
  • B. $GmM / 2R$
  • C. $GmM / 3R$
  • D. $5GmM / 6R$

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Q47 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. These two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. (1) 2:9
  • B. (2) 1:2
  • C. (3) 2:3
  • D. (4) 1:1

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Q49 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. (1) 28
  • B. (2) 17
  • C. (3) 32
  • D. (4) 34

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Q51 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
The compound that will undergo $S_N1$ reaction with the fastest rate is:
Question 51 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. (1) Cyclohexyl bromide
  • B. (2) Bromobenzene
  • C. (3) 1-phenylethyl bromide
  • D. (4) Cyclopentyl bromide

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Q52 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
The highest number of helium atoms is in:
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  • A. (1) 4 u of helium
  • B. (2) 4 g of helium
  • C. (3) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
  • D. (4) 4 mol of helium

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Q55 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
The energy of an electron in the ground state ($n=1$) for $He^+$ ion is $-x$ J, then that for an electron in $n=2$ state for $Be^{3+}$ ion in J is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. (1) x/9
  • B. (2) -4x
  • C. (3) -4/9 x
  • D. (4) -x

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The $E^0$ value for the $Mn^{3+}/Mn^{2+}$ couple is more positive than that of $Cr^{3+}/Cr^{2+}$ or $Fe^{3+}/Fe^{2+}$ due to change of:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. (1) $d^5$ to $d^2$ configuration
  • B. (2) $d^4$ to $d^5$ configuration
  • C. (3) $d^3$ to $d^5$ configuration
  • D. (4) $d^5$ to $d^4$ configuration

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The $E^0$ value for the $\text{Mn}^{3+}/\text{Mn}^{2+}$ couple is more positive than that of $\text{Cr}^{3+}/\text{Cr}^{2+}$ or $\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}$ due to change of:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. $d^5$ to $d^2$ configuration
  • B. $d^4$ to $d^5$ configuration
  • C. $d^3$ to $d^5$ configuration
  • D. $d^5$ to $d^4$ configuration

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
A compound with a molecular formula of $\text{C}_6\text{H}_{14}$ has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:
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  • A. 2-methylpentane
  • B. 2,3-dimethylbutane
  • C. 2,2-dimethylbutane
  • D. n-hexane

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane. Statement II: When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.
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  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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Q59 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation: $\text{Cyclohexyl}-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}=\text{CH}_2 \rightarrow \text{Cyclohexyl}-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{CHO}$
Question 59 image
  • A. (i) $\text{BH}_3$ (ii) $\text{H}_2\text{O}_2/\text{OH}^-$ (iii) PCC
  • B. (i) $\text{BH}_3$ (ii) $\text{H}_2\text{O}_2/\text{OH}^-$ (iii) alk. $\text{KMnO}_4$ (iv) $\text{H}_3\text{O}^+$
  • C. (i) $\text{H}_2\text{O}/\text{H}^+$ (ii) PCC
  • D. (i) $\text{H}_2\text{O}/\text{H}^+$ (ii) $\text{CrO}_3$

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Q60 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Which plot of ln k vs $1/T$ is consistent with Arrhenius equation?
Question 60 image
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  • A. Plot 1 (Positive slope)
  • B. Plot 2 (Positive slope)
  • C. Plot 3 (Negative slope)
  • D. Plot 4 (Positive slope)

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Q62 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Match List I with List II. List I (Process): A. Isothermal, B. Isochoric, C. Isobaric, D. Adiabatic List II (Conditions): I. No heat exchange, II. Constant temperature, III. Constant volume, IV. Constant pressure
  • A. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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Q63 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Match List I with List II. List I (Complex) | List II (Type of isomerism) A. $[Co(NH_3)_5(NO_2)]Cl_2$ | I. Solvate isomerism B. $[Co(NH_3)_5(SO_4)]Br$ | II. Linkage isomerism C. $[Co(NH_3)_6][Cr(CN)_6]$ | III. Ionization isomerism D. $[Co(H_2O)_6]Cl_3$ | IV. Coordination isomerism
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • B. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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Q64 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to:
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  • A. 250 mg
  • B. Zero mg
  • C. 200 mg
  • D. 750 mg

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Q64 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to
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  • A. 250 mg
  • B. Zero mg
  • C. 200 mg
  • D. 750 mg

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Q65 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?
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  • A. $2\text{KClO}_3 + \text{I}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{KIO}_3 + \text{Cl}_2$
  • B. $\text{H}_2 + \text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{HCl}$
  • C. $\text{BaCl}_2 + \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{BaSO}_4 + 2\text{NaCl}$
  • D. $\text{Zn} + \text{CuSO}_4 \rightarrow \text{ZnSO}_4 + \text{Cu}$

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Q65 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?
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  • A. 2 KClO_3 + I_2 \rightarrow 2 KIO_3 + Cl_2
  • B. H_2 + Cl_2 \rightarrow 2 HCl
  • C. BaCl_2 + Na_2SO_4 \rightarrow BaSO_4 + 2 NaCl
  • D. Zn + CuSO_4 \rightarrow ZnSO_4 + Cu

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Q66 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
For the reaction $2\text{A} \rightleftharpoons \text{B} + \text{C}$, $K_c = 4 \times 10^{-3}$. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: $[\text{A}]=[\text{B}]=[\text{C}] = 2 \times 10^{-3} \text{ M}$. Then, which of the following is correct?
  • A. Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
  • B. Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
  • C. Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
  • D. Reaction is at equilibrium.

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Q66 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
For the reaction $2A \rightleftharpoons B + C$, $K_c = 4 \times 10^{-3}$. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: $[A] = [B] = [C] = 2 \times 10^{-3} M$. Then, which of the following is correct?
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  • A. Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
  • B. Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
  • C. Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
  • D. Reaction is at equilibrium.

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Q67 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Match List I with List II. List I (Compound) | List II (Shape/geometry) A. NH_3 | I. Trigonal Pyramidal B. BrF_5 | II. Square Planar C. XeF_4 | III. Octahedral D. SF_6 | IV. Square Pyramidal
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  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • D. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

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Q67 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Match List I with List II. List I (Compound) | List II (Shape/geometry) A. $NH_3$ | I. Trigonal Pyramidal B. $BrF_5$ | II. Square Planar C. $XeF_4$ | III. Octahedral D. $SF_6$ | IV. Square Pyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B. (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • C. (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • D. (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

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Q68 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as
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  • A. Sublimation
  • B. Distillation
  • C. Chromatography
  • D. Crystallization

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Q68 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. Sublimation
  • B. Distillation
  • C. Chromatography
  • D. Crystallization

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
In which of the following equilibria, $K_p$ and $K_c$ are NOT equal?
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  • A. H_2(g) + I_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2 HI(g)
  • B. CO(g) + H_2O(g) \rightleftharpoons CO_2(g) + H_2(g)
  • C. 2 BrCl(g) \rightleftharpoons Br_2(g) + Cl_2(g)
  • D. PCl_5(g) \rightleftharpoons PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g)

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
In which of the following equilibria, $K_p$ and $K_c$ are NOT equal?
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  • A. $H_2(g) + I_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2 HI(g)$
  • B. $CO(g) + H_2O(g) \rightleftharpoons CO_2(g) + H_2(g)$
  • C. $2 BrCl(g) \rightleftharpoons Br_2(g) + Cl_2(g)$
  • D. $PCl_5(g) \rightleftharpoons PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g)$

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show -2 oxidation state?
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  • A. Se
  • B. Te
  • C. Po
  • D. O

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show -2 oxidation state?
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  • A. Se
  • B. Te
  • C. Po
  • D. O

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order $H_2O > H_2Te > H_2Se > H_2S$. Statement II : On the basis of molecular mass, $H_2O$ is expected to have lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in $H_2O$, it has higher boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order $H_2O > H_2Te > H_2Se > H_2S$. Statement II : On the basis of molecular mass, $H_2O$ is expected to have lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in $H_2O$, it has higher boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction. Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q73 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Both $[Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}$ and $[CoF_6]^{3-}$ complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour. Statement II : $[Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}$ is diamagnetic whereas $[CoF_6]^{3-}$ is paramagnetic. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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Q74 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Fehling's solution 'A' is
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  • A. alkaline copper sulphate
  • B. alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle's salt)
  • C. aqueous sodium citrate
  • D. aqueous copper sulphate

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Q75 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
The Henry's law constant ($K_H$) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, $2 \times 10^{-5}$ and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:
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  • A. B > C > A
  • B. A > C > B
  • C. A > B > C
  • D. B > A > C

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Q76 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Match List I with List II. List I (Conversion) | List II (Number of Faraday required) A. 1 mol of $H_2O$ to $O_2$ | I. 3F B. 1 mol of $MnO_4^-$ to $Mn^{2+}$ | II. 2F C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten $CaCl_2$ | III. 1F D. 1 mol of FeO to $Fe_2O_3$ | IV. 5F Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • B. (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • C. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • D. (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q77 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Match List I with List II. List I (Quantum Number) | List II (Information provided) A. $m_l$ | I. shape of orbital B. $m_s$ | II. size of orbital C. $l$ | III. orientation of orbital D. $n$ | IV. orientation of spin of electron
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

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Q78 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions? A. $Ti^{3+}$ B. $Cr^{2+}$ C. $Mn^{2+}$ D. $Fe^{2+}$ E. $Sc^{3+}$
  • A. A and E only
  • B. B and C only
  • C. A and D only
  • D. B and D only

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are: A. Tollen's reagent B. Schiff's reagent C. HCN D. $NH_2OH$ E. $NaHSO_3$
  • A. A and D
  • B. B and E
  • C. E and D
  • D. B and C

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si
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  • A. Si < C < O < N < F
  • B. O < F < N < C < Si
  • C. F < O < N < C < Si
  • D. Si < C < N < O < F

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si
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  • A. Si < C < O < N < F
  • B. O < F < N < C < Si
  • C. F < O < N < C < Si
  • D. Si < C < N < O < F

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Q82 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Match List I with List II. List I (Molecule) | List II (Number and types of bond/s between two carbon atoms) A. ethane | I. one $\sigma$-bond and two $\pi$-bonds B. ethene | II. two $\pi$-bonds C. carbon molecule, $C_2$ | III. one $\sigma$-bond D. ethyne | IV. one $\sigma$-bond and one $\pi$-bond
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

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Q82 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Match List I with List II: List I (Molecule): A. ethane B. ethene C. carbon molecule, C2 D. ethyne List II (Number and types of bond/s between two carbon atoms): I. one $\sigma$-bond and two $\pi$-bonds II. two $\pi$-bonds III. one $\sigma$-bond IV. one $\sigma$-bond and one $\pi$-bond
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

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Q83 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N
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  • A. Li < B < Be < C < N
  • B. Li < Be < C < B < N
  • C. Li < Be < N < B < C
  • D. Li < Be < B < C < N

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Q83 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N
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  • A. Li < B < Be < C < N
  • B. Li < Be < C < B < N
  • C. Li < Be < N < B < C
  • D. Li < Be < B < C < N

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Q84 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?
Question 84 image
  • A. CH3-CH2-CH-OH (with CH3 branch)
  • B. CH3-CH-CH2OH (with CH3 branch)
  • C. CH3-C(CH3)2-OH
  • D. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2OH

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Q84 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?
Question 84 image
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  • A. CH3-CH2-CH(CH3)-OH
  • B. CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2OH
  • C. CH3-C(CH3)2-OH
  • D. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2OH

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of:
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  • A. probability of collision.
  • B. orientation of reactant molecules during collision.
  • C. rate constant at two different temperatures.
  • D. rate constant at standard temperature.

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. probability of collision.
  • B. orientation of reactant molecules during collision.
  • C. rate constant at two different temperatures.
  • D. rate constant at standard temperature.

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Identify the correct answer.
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  • A. BF3 has non-zero dipole moment.
  • B. Dipole moment of NF3 is greater than that of NH3.
  • C. Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO3 2- ion.
  • D. Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Identify the correct answer.
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  • A. BF3 has non-zero dipole moment.
  • B. Dipole moment of NF3 is greater than that of NH3.
  • C. Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO3^{2-} ion.
  • D. Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.

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Q87 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is
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  • A. Ce3+ and Eu2+
  • B. Gd3+ and Eu3+
  • C. Pm3+ and Sm3+
  • D. Ce4+ and Yb2+

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Q87 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is
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  • A. Ce^{3+} and Eu^{2+}
  • B. Gd^{3+} and Eu^{3+}
  • C. Pm^{3+} and Sm^{3+}
  • D. Ce^{4+} and Yb^{2+}

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Q88 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation. Given R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1, log 4 = 0.6021
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  • A. 380.4 kJ/mol
  • B. 3.80 kJ/mol
  • C. 3804 kJ/mol
  • D. 38.04 kJ/mol

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Q88 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation. Given $R = 8.314 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}$, $\log 4 = 0.6021$
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 380.4 kJ/mol
  • B. 3.80 kJ/mol
  • C. 3804 kJ/mol
  • D. 38.04 kJ/mol

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Q89 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
For the given reaction: (Cyclohexyl)-CH=CH2 + KMnO4/H+ -> 'P' (major product). 'P' is
Question 89 image
  • A. (Cyclohexyl)-COOH
  • B. (Cyclohexyl)-CH(OH)-CH2(OH)-(Cyclohexyl)
  • C. O=C-C=O
  • D. (Cyclohexyl)-CHO

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Q89 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
For the given reaction: (refer to image for structure) KMnO4/H^+ -> 'P' (major product). 'P' is
Question 89 image
  • A. Cyclohexanecarboxylic acid
  • B. 1,2-dihydroxycyclohexane derivative
  • C. Diketone derivative
  • D. Cyclohexanecarbaldehyde

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is: (Given R = 2.0 cal K-1 mol-1)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. -413.14 calories
  • B. 413.14 calories
  • C. 100 calories
  • D. 0 calorie

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is: (Given $R = 2.0 \text{ cal K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. - 413.14 calories
  • B. 413.14 calories
  • C. 100 calories
  • D. 0 calorie

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Q91 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are 3ROH + PCl3 -> 3RCl + A ROH + PCl5 -> RCl + HCl + B
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. POCl3 and H3PO4
  • B. H3PO4 and POCl3
  • C. H3PO3 and POCl3
  • D. POCl3 and H3PO3

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Q91 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are: $3ROH + PCl_3 \rightarrow 3RCl + A$ $ROH + PCl_5 \rightarrow RCl + HCl + B$
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. POCl3 and H3PO4
  • B. H3PO4 and POCl3
  • C. H3PO3 and POCl3
  • D. POCl3 and H3PO3

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Q92 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI. A. Al^{3+} B. Cu^{2+} C. Ba^{2+} D. Co^{2+} E. Mg^{2+}
  • A. B, C, A, D, E
  • B. E, C, D, B, A
  • C. E, A, B, C, D
  • D. B, A, D, C, E

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Q93 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
The plot of osmotic pressure ($\Pi$) vs concentration ($mol L^{-1}$) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar $mol^{-1}$. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is: (Use $R = 0.083 L bar mol^{-1} K^{-1}$)
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  • A. 310°C
  • B. 25.73°C
  • C. 12.05°C
  • D. 37°C

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Q94 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is: (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. ABC3
  • B. AB2C2
  • C. ABC4
  • D. A2BC2

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Q95 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are: (Refer to image 2 for diagram)
Question 95 image
  • A. A = 1-methyl-2-bromocyclohexane, B = 3-methylcyclohexene
  • B. A = 1-methyl-2-bromocyclohexane, B = 1-methylcyclohexene
  • C. A = 2-methylcyclohexyl bromide, B = 2-methylcyclohexanone
  • D. A = 1-methyl-1-bromocyclohexane, B = cyclohexene

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Q96 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe^{2+} ion?
  • A. concentrated sulphuric acid
  • B. dilute nitric acid
  • C. dilute sulphuric acid
  • D. dilute hydrochloric acid

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Q97 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of $N_2 = 3.0 \times 10^{-3} M, O_2 = 4.2 \times 10^{-3} M$ and $NO = 2.8 \times 10^{-3} M$. $2NO(g) \rightleftharpoons N_2(g) + O_2(g)$. If 0.1 mol $L^{-1}$ of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation ($\alpha$) of NO(g) at equilibrium?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. 0.0889
  • B. 0.8889
  • C. 0.717
  • D. 0.00889

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Q98 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence: $CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-I \xrightarrow{NaCN} A \xrightarrow{OH^-, \text{partial hydrolysis}} B \xrightarrow{NaOH, Br_2} C$
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  • A. butylamine
  • B. butanamide
  • C. alpha-bromobutanoic acid
  • D. propylamine

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Q98 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence: $$CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-I \xrightarrow{NaCN} A \xrightarrow[Partial\ hydrolysis]{OH^-} B \xrightarrow{NaOH/Br_2} C (major)$$
Question 98 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. butylamine
  • B. butanamide
  • C. α-bromobutanoic acid
  • D. propylamine

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:
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  • A. Phospholipids
  • B. Glycerides
  • C. Carbohydrates
  • D. Amino acids

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss: A. Over exploitation B. Co-extinction C. Mutation D. Habitat loss and fragmentation E. Migration Choose the correct option:
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  • A. A, B, C and D only
  • B. A, B and E only
  • C. A, B and D only
  • D. A, C and D only

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?
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  • A. Mode of nutrition
  • B. Mode of spore formation
  • C. Fruiting body
  • D. Morphology of mycelium

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. Mode of nutrition
  • B. Mode of spore formation
  • C. Fruiting body
  • D. Morphology of mycelium

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?
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  • A. Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
  • B. Only pink flowered plants
  • C. Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
  • D. Only red flowered plants

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
  • B. Only pink flowered plants
  • C. Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
  • D. Only red flowered plants

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance? A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive. B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F2 generation. C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants. D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor. E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. A, C, D and E only
  • B. B, C and D only
  • C. A, B, C, D and E
  • D. A, B and C only

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because: A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification. B. Tropical environments are more seasonal. C. More solar energy is available in tropics. D. Constant environments promote niche specialization. E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.
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  • A. A and B only
  • B. A, B and E only
  • C. A, B and D only
  • D. A, C, D and E only

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?
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  • A. D
  • B. A
  • C. B
  • D. C

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:
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  • A. Niacin
  • B. Flavin
  • C. Haem
  • D. Zinc

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage. Statement II : The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism? A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism. B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient. C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA. D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome. E. It shows ability to replicate.
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  • A. D and E only
  • B. B and C only
  • C. A and E only
  • D. A and B only

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?
  • A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
  • B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
  • C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
  • D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)
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  • A. (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
  • B. (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
  • C. (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
  • D. (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)
Question 111 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
  • B. (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
  • C. (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
  • D. (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match List I with List II: List I: A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene B. Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent C. Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parents D. Number of chromosome sets in plant List II: I. Back cross II. Ploidy III. Allele IV. Test cross
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match List I with List II List I A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene B. Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent C. Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parents D. Number of chromosome sets in plant List II I. Back cross II. Ploidy III. Allele IV. Test cross
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • B. (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • C. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Redifferentiation
  • B. Dedifferentiation
  • C. Maturation
  • D. Differentiation

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Redifferentiation
  • B. Dedifferentiation
  • C. Maturation
  • D. Differentiation

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?
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  • A. Cassia
  • B. Pisum
  • C. Sesbania
  • D. Datura

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?
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  • A. Cassia
  • B. Pisum
  • C. Sesbania
  • D. Datura

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
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  • A. 6 bp
  • B. 4 bp
  • C. 10 bp
  • D. 8 bp

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. 6 bp
  • B. 4 bp
  • C. 10 bp
  • D. 8 bp

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis? A. Light B. Chlorophyll C. CO2 D. ATP E. NADPH
  • A. B, C and D only
  • B. C, D and E only
  • C. D and E only
  • D. A, B and C only

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is dN/dt = rN(K-N/K). From this equation, K indicates:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Biotic potential
  • B. Carrying capacity
  • C. Population density
  • D. Intrinsic rate of natural increase

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is $$\frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left[ \frac{K-N}{K} \right]$$. From this equation, K indicates:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. Biotic potential
  • B. Carrying capacity
  • C. Population density
  • D. Intrinsic rate of natural increase

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:
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  • A. Micro propagation
  • B. Differentiation
  • C. Somatic hybridization
  • D. Totipotency

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. Micro propagation
  • B. Differentiation
  • C. Somatic hybridization
  • D. Totipotency

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of:
  • A. Acetylase
  • B. Permease
  • C. Polymerase
  • D. Beta-galactosidase

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Metaphase
  • B. Anaphase
  • C. Telophase
  • D. Prophase

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates.
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  • A. B
  • B. C
  • C. D
  • D. A

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and down stream end:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
  • B. Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
  • C. Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
  • D. Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene

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Q125 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO2 fixed in the Calvin cycle?
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  • A. 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • B. 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
  • C. 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • D. 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue. Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue. Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin (1) promotes abscission of mature leaves only. (2) does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants. (3) can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth. (4) promotes apical dominance.
  • A. promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
  • B. does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
  • C. can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
  • D. promotes apical dominance.

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
  • B. does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
  • C. can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
  • D. promotes apical dominance.

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. bb
  • B. Bb
  • C. BB/Bb
  • D. BB

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. bb
  • B. Bb
  • C. BB/Bb
  • D. BB

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:
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  • A. Feedback inhibition
  • B. Competitive inhibition
  • C. Enzyme activation
  • D. Cofactor inhibition

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II. List I: A. Clostridium butylicum, B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae, C. Trichoderma polysporum, D. Streptococcus sp. List II: I. Ethanol, II. Streptokinase, III. Butyric acid, IV. Cyclosporin-A.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Match List I with List II: List I (Organism) | List II (Product) A. Clostridium butylicum | I. Ethanol B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae | II. Streptokinase C. Trichoderma polysporum | III. Butyric acid D. Streptococcus sp. | IV. Cyclosporin-A
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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Q131 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
List of endangered species was released by-
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  • A. WWF
  • B. FOAM
  • C. IUCN
  • D. GEAC

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Q131 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
List of endangered species was released by-
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. WWF
  • B. FOAM
  • C. IUCN
  • D. GEAC

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List I with List II List I (Cell Organelle) | List II (Function/Characteristic) A. Nucleolus | I. Site of formation of glycolipid B. Centriole | II. Organization like the cartwheel C. Leucoplasts | III. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis D. Golgi apparatus | IV. For storing nutrients Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List I with List II: List I | List II A. Nucleolus | I. Site of formation of glycolipid B. Centriole | II. Organization like the cartwheel C. Leucoplasts | III. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis D. Golgi apparatus | IV. For storing nutrients
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List I with List II List I | List II A. Rhizopus | I. Mushroom B. Ustilago | II. Smut fungus C. Puccinia | III. Bread mould D. Agaricus | IV. Rust fungus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List I with List II: List I | List II A. Rhizopus | I. Mushroom B. Ustilago | II. Smut fungus C. Puccinia | III. Bread mould D. Agaricus | IV. Rust fungus
  • A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q134 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Identify the set of correct statements: A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar. B. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water. C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting. D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like. E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. A, B, C and D only
  • B. A, C, D and E only
  • C. B, C, D and E only
  • D. C, D and E only

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Bulliform cells are responsible for
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. Protecting the plant from salt stress.
  • B. Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
  • C. Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
  • D. Inward curling of leaves in monocots.

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Bulliform cells are responsible for:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (5 sets)
  • A. Protecting the plant from salt stress.
  • B. Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
  • C. Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
  • D. Inward curling of leaves in monocots.

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Match List I with List II List I (Types of Stamens) | List II (Example) A. Monoadelphous | I. Citrus B. Diadelphous | II. Pea C. Polyadelphous | III. Lily D. Epiphyllous | IV. China-rose Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • B. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

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Q137 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Succinic acid -> Malic acid
  • B. Succinyl-CoA -> Succinic acid
  • C. Isocitrate -> a-ketoglutaric acid
  • D. Malic acid -> Oxaloacetic acid

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Q138 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The DNA present in chloroplast is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Circular, double stranded
  • B. Linear, single stranded
  • C. Circular, single stranded
  • D. Linear, double stranded

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match List I with List II List I | List II A. Frederick Griffith | I. Genetic code B. Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod | II. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication C. Har Gobind Khorana | III. Transformation D. Meselson & Stahl | IV. Lac operon Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (2 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • C. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (3 sets)
  • A. Somatic embryos
  • B. Protoplasts
  • C. Pollens
  • D. Callus

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?
  • A. Somatic embryos
  • B. Protoplasts
  • C. Pollens
  • D. Callus

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Q141 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Identify the correct description about the given figure:
Question 141 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (1 set)
  • A. Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
  • B. Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
  • C. Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy.
  • D. Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens.

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Given below are two statements: Statement I : In C3 plants, some O2 binds to RuBisCO, hence CO2 fixation is decreased. Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2024 (4 sets)
  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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