2025-NEET-SET-CODE-45 — NEET 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

Q1 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at $x = L$ and can be taken to be very wide in the $z$ direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension $S$ and density $\rho$, the liquid surface makes angle $\theta_0$ ($\theta_0 \ll 1$) with the $x$-axis at $x = L$. If $y(x)$ is the height of the surface then the equation for $y(x)$ is: (take $\theta(x) = \sin \theta(x) = \tan \theta(x) = \frac{dy}{dx}$, $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity)

A. $$\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{\rho g}{S} x$$
B. $$\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{\rho g}{S} y$$
C. $$\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \sqrt{\frac{\rho g}{S}}$$
D. $$\frac{dy}{dx} = \sqrt{\frac{\rho g}{S}} x$$

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm, the magnification in the microscope is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. 100
B. 125
C. 150
D. 250

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

An electron (mass $9 \times 10^{-31}$ kg and charge $1.6 \times 10^{-19}$ C) moving with speed $c/100$ ($c$ = speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field $\vec{B}$ of magnitude $9 \times 10^{-4}$ T perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply an uniform electric field $\vec{E}$ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. (speed of light $c = 3 \times 10^8$ m/s)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. $\vec{E}$ is perpendicular to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4$ V m$^{-1}$
B. $\vec{E}$ is perpendicular to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2$ V m$^{-1}$
C. $\vec{E}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2$ V m$^{-1}$
D. $\vec{E}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4$ V m$^{-1}$

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

An electron (mass $9 \times 10^{-31}$ kg and charge $1.6 \times 10^{-19}$ C) moving with speed $c/100$ ($c = $ speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field $\vec{B}$ of magnitude $9 \times 10^{-4}$ T perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field $\vec{E}$ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light $c = 3 \times 10^8$ ms$^{-1}$)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. $\vec{E}$ is perpendicular to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4$ V m$^{-1}$
B. $\vec{E}$ is perpendicular to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2$ V m$^{-1}$
C. $\vec{E}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2$ V m$^{-1}$
D. $\vec{E}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4$ V m$^{-1}$

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

There are two inclined surfaces of equal length ($L$) and same angle of inclination 45$^{\circ}$ with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction ($\mu_k$) between the object and the rough surface is close to

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. 0.25
B. 0.40
C. 0.5
D. 0.75

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying brakes, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If $F_A$ and $F_B$ are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio $F_A/F_B$ is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 3/2
B. 2/3
C. 1/3
D. 1/2

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. 2.0 A
B. 0.5 A
C. 2.5 A
D. 1.5 A

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Q10 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take $g = 9.8$ m/s$^2$)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. 21 Ns
B. 7 Ns
D. 84 Ns

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Q12 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 1:4
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 4:1

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Q13 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power ($p$) and magnification ($m$) for each lens will be, respectively -

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. 4p and 4m
B. p^4 and 4m
C. 4p and m^4
D. p^4 and m^4

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases

An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature 27°C. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to: [Given, $R = \frac{100}{12} J mol^{-1} K^{-1}$, and molecular mass of $O_2 = 32$, 1 atm pressure = $1.01 \times 10^5 N/m^2$]

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. 0.125 kg
B. 0.144 kg
C. 0.116 kg
D. 0.156 kg

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

In some appropriate units, time ($t$) and position ($x$) relation of a moving particle is given by $t = x^2 + x$. The acceleration of the particle is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. $\frac{-2}{(x+2)^3}$
B. $\frac{-2}{(2x+1)^3}$
C. $\frac{2}{(x+1)^3}$
D. $\frac{2}{2x+1}$

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Q16 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 20 $\Omega$, a capacitor of reactance 25 $\Omega$ and an inductor of reactance 45 $\Omega$ are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively -

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 7.8 A and 30°
B. 7.8 A and 45°
C. 15.6 A and 30°
D. 15.6 A and 45°

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. 100 days
B. 105 days
C. 115 days
D. 108 days

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Q19 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity 2K while that in the middle has thermal conductivity K. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature 3T and the right end at T. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is T1 and that at the right junction is T2. The ratio T1/T2 is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 3/2
B. 4/3
C. 5/3
D. 5/4

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Q20 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by d. Two slabs of different dielectric constant $K_1$ and $K_2$ with thickness $3d/8$ and $d/2$, respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. If $K_1 = 1.25 K_2$, the value of $K_1$ is :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. 2.66
B. 2.33
C. 1.60
D. 1.33

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Q21 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. 9 min, 40 km/h
B. 25 min, 100 km/h
C. 10 min, 90 km/h
D. 15 min, 120 km/h

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Q22 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion

A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 60° with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (take g = 10 m/s^2)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. 100 N
B. 100 $\sqrt{3}$ N
C. 200 N
D. 200 $\sqrt{3}$ N

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Q23 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency $\omega(t)$ and average amplitude $A(t)$ of the system change with time $t$. Which one of the following options schematically depicts these changes correctly?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)

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Q24 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

A balloon is made of a material of surface tension $S$ and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in it) has small area $A$. It is filled with a gas of density $\rho$ and takes a spherical shape of radius $R$. When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius $r$ changes from $R$ to $0$ (zero) in time $T$. If the speed $v(r)$ of gas coming out of the balloon depends on $r$ as $r^a$ and $T \propto S^\alpha A^\beta \rho^\gamma R^\delta$ then

A. $a = 1/2, \alpha = 1/2, \beta = -1, \gamma = +1, \delta = 3/2$
B. $a = -1/2, \alpha = -1/2, \beta = -1, \gamma = -1/2, \delta = 5/2$
C. $a = -1/2, \alpha = -1/2, \beta = -1, \gamma = 1/2, \delta = 7/2$
D. $a = 1/2, \alpha = 1/2, \beta = -1/2, \gamma = 1/2, \delta = 7/2$

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier callipers. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least division in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at x = 0.1 cm when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed. If the main scale reading for the diameter is M = 5 cm and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction, is

A. 5.18 cm
B. 5.08 cm
C. 4.98 cm
D. 5.00 cm

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:

A. zero at all places
B. constant between the plates and zero outside the plates
C. non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting peripheries of the plates
D. zero between the plates and non-zero outside

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Q27 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then-

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 60°
B. reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 30°
C. both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and refraction close to 60° and 30°, respectively.
D. transmitted light is completely polarized with angle of refraction close to 30°

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. 3F/5
B. 2F/3
C. F/2
D. 3F/8

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

A container has two chambers of volumes $V_1 = 2$ litres and $V_2 = 3$ litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains $n_1 = 5$ and $n_2 = 4$ moles of ideal gas at pressures $p_1 = 1$ atm and $p_2 = 2$ atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. 1.3 atm
B. 1.6 atm
C. 1.4 atm
D. 1.8 atm

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Q30 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

A particle of mass m is moving around the origin with a constant force F pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius r of the nth orbit and the particle's speed v in the orbit depend on n as

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. $r \propto n^{1/3}, v \propto n^{1/3}$
B. $r \propto n^{1/3}, v \propto n^{2/3}$
C. $r \propto n^{2/3}, v \propto n^{1/3}$
D. $r \propto n^{4/3}, v \propto n^{-1/3}$

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. 88 earth days
B. 225 earth days
C. 172 earth days
D. 124 earth days

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. 88 earth days
B. 225 earth days
C. 172 earth days
D. 124 earth days

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. 16 N
B. 27 N
C. 32 N
D. 36 N

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. 16 N
B. 27 N
C. 32 N
D. 36 N

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A wire of resistance $R$ is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. $R/64$
B. $R/32$
C. $R/16$
D. $R/8$

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Q34 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the $n = 2$ state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 0.067 nm
B. 0.67 nm
C. 1.67 nm
D. 2.67 nm

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Q35 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

An electric dipole with dipole moment $5 \times 10^{-6}$ Cm is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude $4 \times 10^5$ N/C. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of 60° with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 0.8 J
B. 1.0 J
C. 1.2 J
D. 1.5 J

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Q36 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 1.5 A
B. 2.0 A
C. 2.5 A
D. 3.0 A

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Q37 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

A photon and an electron (mass $m$) have the same energy $E$. The ratio ($\lambda_{\text{photon}} / \lambda_{\text{electron}}$) of their de Broglie wavelengths is: ($c$ is the speed of light)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. $\sqrt{E/2m}$
B. $c\sqrt{2mE}$
C. $c\sqrt{2m/E}$
D. $\frac{1}{c}\sqrt{E/2m}$

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Q42 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

A physical quantity $P$ is related to four observations $a, b, c$ and $d$ as follows: $$P = \frac{a^3 b^2}{c\sqrt{d}}$$ The percentage errors of measurement in $a, b, c$ and $d$ are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity $P$ is:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 10%
B. 2%
C. 13%
D. 15%

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Q43 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at 22.5° from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is ($I_0$ is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. $I_0/2$
B. $I_0/4$
C. $I_0/8$
D. $I_0/16$

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Q46 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes $n = 2 \rightarrow n = 3$ and $n = 4 \rightarrow n = 6$ transitions, respectively, is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. 36
B. 16
C. 9
D. 4

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Q54 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. Law of conservation of mass
B. Law of constant proportion
C. Law of multiple proportion
D. Law of gaseous volume

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Q55 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

Consider the following compounds : $KO_2$, $H_2O_2$ and $H_2SO_4$. The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,

A. +1, -1, and +6
B. +2, -2, and +6
C. +1, -2, and +4
D. +4, -4, and +6

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

If the half-life ($t_{1/2}$) for a first order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is closest to:

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A. 2 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

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Q61 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

If the molar conductivity ($\Lambda_m$) of a 0.050 mol $L^{-1}$ solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S $cm^2$ $mol^{-1}$, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be [Assume $\Lambda^\circ_+ = 349.6$ S $cm^2$ $mol^{-1}$ and $\Lambda^\circ_- = 50.4$ S $cm^2$ $mol^{-1}$.]

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. 0.115
B. 0.125
C. 0.225
D. 0.215

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Q62 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Given below are two statements : Statement I : A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable. Statement II : As bond order increases, the bond length increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Q63 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?

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A. $[Co(NH_3)_3 Cl_3]$
B. $[Co(NH_3)_4 Cl_2]$
C. $[Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3$
D. $[Co(NH_3)_5 Cl]Cl_2$

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Q65 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

C(s) + 2$H_2$(g) $\rightarrow$ $CH_4$(g); $\Delta H = -74.8$ kJ $mol^{-1}$. Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction? [R $\rightarrow$ reactants; P $\rightarrow$ products]

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. Diagram (1)
B. Diagram (2)
C. Diagram (3)
D. Diagram (4)

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Q67 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is :

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A. N-methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine > N-ethylethanamine
B. N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > benzenamine > N-methylaniline
C. N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > benzenamine
D. benzenamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > N-ethylethanamine

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Match List I with List II. List I (Name of Vitamin) | List II (Deficiency disease) A. Vitamin B12 | I. Cheilosis B. Vitamin D | II. Convulsions C. Vitamin B2 | III. Rickets D. Vitamin B6 | IV. Pernicious anaemia Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A. (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
B. (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
C. (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
D. (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is :

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A. (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH
B. CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > HCOOH
C. HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH
D. HCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism. Statement II : The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr2+ ion (Z = 24) is the same as that of a Nd3+ ion (Z = 60). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds

Match List I with List II List I (Mixture) | List II (Method of Separation) A. CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 | I. Distillation under reduced pressure B. Crude oil in petroleum industry | II. Steam distillation C. Glycerol from spent-lye | III. Fractional distillation D. Aniline - water | IV. Simple distillation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A. (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
B. (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
D. (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q73 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

For the reaction $A(g) \rightleftharpoons 2B(g)$, the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K. [Given : R = 0.0831 L atm mol-1 K-1]. Kp for the reaction at 1000 K is

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. 83.1
B. 2.077 \times 10^5
C. 0.033
D. 0.021

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Q74 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273 - 278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state. Statement II : Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Q75 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound? (Structure: 2,3-dimethylbutane)

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

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Q75 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound? $$H_3C-CH(CH_3)-CH_2-CH_3$$

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A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

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Q76 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

Among the given compounds I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of C-H bond marked with * is : (I: Benzene C-H, II: Alkyne C-H (sp), III: Cyclopropane C-H)

A. II > I > III
B. I > II > III
C. III > II > I
D. II > III > I

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Q78 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen

The major product of the following reaction is: $$Ph-CO-CH_2-CN \xrightarrow{(i) CH_3MgBr (excess) (ii) H_3O^+} ?$$

A. Product 1
B. Product 2
C. Product 3
D. Product 4

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

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A. 0.01M Urea
B. 0.01M KNO3
C. 0.01M Na2SO4
D. 0.015M C6H12O6

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. 0.01M Urea
B. 0.01M KNO$_3$
C. 0.01M Na$_2$SO$_4$
D. 0.015M C$_6$H$_{12}$O$_6$

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Q80 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Haber process B. Wacker oxidation C. Wilkinson catalyst D. Ziegler catalyst List-II I. Fe catalyst II. PdCl$_2$ III. [(PPh$_3$)$_3$RhCl] IV. TiCl$_4$ with Al(CH$_3$)$_3$

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. The solution shows positive deviation.
B. The solution shows negative deviation.
C. The solution is ideal.
D. The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.

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Q84 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): $CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-I$ undergoes S$_N$2 reaction faster than $CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-Cl$. Reason (R): Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

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Q89 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s$^{-1}$, how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L$^{-1}$ concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L$^{-1}$? (Given: log 2 = 0.301)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. 69.3 s
B. 23.1 s
C. 210 s
D. 21.0 s

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Q89 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s$^{-1}$, how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L$^{-1}$ concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L$^{-1}$? (Given: log 2 = 0.301)

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. 69.3 s
B. 23.1 s
C. 210 s
D. 21.0 s

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds

Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to 'Lassaigne's test'?

A. Na + C + N $\rightarrow$ NaCN
B. 2Na + S $\rightarrow$ $Na_2S$
C. Na + X $\rightarrow$ NaX
D. 2CuO + C $\rightarrow$ 2Cu + $CO_2$

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Q91 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as:

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A. Cytochrome bc1
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Cytochrome c oxidase
D. NADH dehydrogenase

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Q92 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. N^2
B. 2^n
C. 2n + 1
D. 2N^2

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Q92 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. $N^2$
B. $2^n$
C. 2n + 1
D. $2N^2$

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Q94 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

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A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Vena cava

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Q95 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

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A. Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
B. Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
C. Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
D. Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.

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Q97 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

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A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Predation
D. Amensalism

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Q99 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

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A. National Park
B. Wildlife Sanctuary
C. Zoos and botanical gardens
D. Protected areas

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Q100 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q100 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) Emphysema, (B) Angina Pectoris, (C) Glomerulonephritis, (D) Tetany List-II (I) Rapid spasms in muscle due to low $Ca^{++}$ in body fluid, (II) Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface, (III) Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle, (IV) Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Emphysema B. Angina Pectoris C. Glomerulonephritis D. Tetany List-II: I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low $Ca^{++}$ in body fluid II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

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A. Whisky
B. Brandy
C. Beer
D. Rum

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. Curd production
B. Ethanol production
C. Liver disease treatment
D. Removing clots from blood vessels

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

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A. Chromosome X
B. Chromosome Y
C. Chromosome 1
D. Chromosome 10

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. First and Second digit of fore limb
B. First digit of hind limb
C. Second digit of fore limb
D. First digit of the fore limb

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

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A. Ethylene
B. Abscisic acid
C. Gibberellin
D. Cytokinin

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?

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A. Acoelomate
B. Pseudocoelomate
C. Schizocoelomate
D. Spongocoelomate

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Head B. Middle piece C. Acrosome D. Tail List-II: I. Enzymes II. Sperm motility III. Energy IV. Genetic material Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence. A. Prothallus stage B. Meiosis in spore mother cells C. Fertilisation D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. B, A, D, E, C
B. B, A, E, C, D
C. D, E, C, A, B
D. E, D, C, B, A

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence. A. Prothallus stage B. Meiosis in spore mother cells C. Fertilisation D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte. E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. B, A, D, E, C
B. B, A, E, C, D
C. D, E, C, A, B
D. E, D, C, B, A

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by: A. Nodal tissue B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Adrenal cortical hormones Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. A, B and C Only
B. A, B, C and D
C. A, C and D Only
D. A, B and D Only

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria C. Anabaena D. Volvox E. Nostoc Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. A only
B. D only
C. B only
D. E only

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at Eco RI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

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A. Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
B. Blue color colonies will be selected.
C. White color colonies will be selected.
D. Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

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A. Bacterium
B. Yeast
C. Virus
D. Phage

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction: $S - G + S^\# \rightarrow S + S^\# - G$ Where, G $\rightarrow$ a group other than hydrogen S $\rightarrow$ a substrate $S^\# \rightarrow$ another substrate

A. Hydrolase
B. Lyase
C. Transferase
D. Ligase

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
B. Vascular bundles are scattered.
C. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
D. Phloem parenchyma is absent.

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. D, E, A, C, B
B. B, E, A, C, D
C. B, E, A, D, C
D. D, E, A, B, C

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Which are correct: A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs. B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. C. $\alpha$-interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers. E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. B and D only
B. D and E only
C. C and D only
D. A and C only

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Match List -I with List -II. List -I List -II A. Centromere I. Mitochondrion B. Cilium II. Cell division C. Cristae III. Cell movement D. Cell membrane IV. Phospholipid Bilayer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Match List I with List II : List I List II A. Chlorophyll a I. Yellow-green B. Chlorophyll b II. Yellow C. Xanthophylls III. Blue-green D. Carotenoids IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange Choose the option with all correct matches.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
C. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
D. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Find the correct statements: A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks. B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks. C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation. D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month. E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. A and E Only
B. B and C Only
C. B, C, D and E Only
D. A, C, D and E Only

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. Coleoptile
B. Coleorhiza
C. Integument
D. Aleurone layer

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. A
B. B
C. D
D. C

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:

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A. Mesosome
B. Chromatophores
C. Cristae
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell? A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing. B. Removal of introns and joining of exons. C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA. D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA. E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. A, B, C only
B. B, C, D only
C. B, C, E only
D. C, D, E only

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

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A. Mendelian inheritance pattern
B. Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
C. Autosomal dominant pattern
D. X-linked recessive inheritance pattern

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Q131 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?

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A. RuBisCo
B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Succinate dehydrogenase
D. Catalase

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

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A. S. R. Kashyap
B. Ramdeo Misra
C. Ram Udar
D. Birbal Sahni

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to: A. A mass of proliferating cell B. Rapid growth of cells C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue D. Those confined to original location Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. A, B only
B. A, B, C only
C. A, B, D only
D. B, C, D only

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q137 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

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A. Free living
B. Endoparasite
C. Symbiotic
D. Ectoparasite

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

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Q141 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate. Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

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Q143 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. (1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
B. (2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
C. (3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
D. (4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.

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Q144 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. (1) Complementary dsRNA
B. (2) Inhibitory ssRNA
C. (3) Complementary tRNA
D. (4) Non-complementary ssRNA

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Q145 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

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A. (1) Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
B. (2) Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
C. (3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
D. (4) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7

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Q146 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Histones are enriched with -

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A. (1) Lysine & Arginine
B. (2) Leucine & Lysine
C. (3) Phenylalanine & Leucine
D. (4) Phenylalanine & Arginine

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

The first menstruation is called :

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A. (1) Menopause
B. (2) Menarche
C. (3) Diapause
D. (4) Ovulation

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
B. (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
D. (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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Q149 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

The protein portion of an enzyme is called :

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A. (1) Cofactor
B. (2) Coenzyme
C. (3) Apoenzyme
D. (4) Prosthetic group

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Q150 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

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A. (1) gm-2
B. (2) KCal m-2
C. (3) KCal m-3
D. (4) (KCal m-2)yr-1

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. (1) Analogy, convergent
B. (2) Homology, divergent
C. (3) Homology, convergent
D. (4) Analogy, divergent

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Q152 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.

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A. (1) 1/4
B. (2) 1/2
C. (3) 1/8
D. (4) Zero

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Q153 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. (3) A is true but R is false
D. (4) A is false but R is true

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Q154 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

A. (1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
B. (2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
C. (3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
D. (4) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis

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Q156 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like: A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. lymph nodes E. Peyer's patches Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. (1) B, C, D only
B. (2) A, B, C only
C. (3) E, A, B only
D. (4) C, D, E only

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Q157 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q157 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q158 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

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A. (1) To separate the chromosomes
B. (2) To synthesize new DNA
C. (3) To repair damaged DNA
D. (4) To regulate cell growth

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Q159 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

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A. (1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
B. (2) Seeds are naked.
C. (3) Seeds are absent.
D. (4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.

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Q160 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones: A. It causes pupilary constriction B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone C. It causes piloerection D. It increases strength of heart contraction Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. (1) C and D Only
B. (2) B, C and D Only
C. (3) A, C and D Only
D. (4) D Only

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Q161 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. (1) Human body will elicit strong immune response
B. (2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
C. (3) Because of structural variation
D. (4) Its bioavailability will be increased

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Q162 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match List I with List II. List I (Group) - List II (Example) A. Pteridophyte - I. Salvia B. Bryophyte - II. Ginkgo C. Angiosperm - III. Polytrichum D. Gymnosperm - IV. Salvinia Choose the option with all correct matches.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
C. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
D. (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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Q163 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

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A. (1) George Gamow
B. (2) Francis Crick
C. (3) Jacque Monod
D. (4) Franklin Stahl

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Q164 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Match List I with List II: List I - List II A. The Evil Quartet - I. Cryopreservation B. Ex situ conservation - II. Alien species invasion C. Lantana camara - III. Causes of biodiversity losses D. Dodo - IV. Extinction Choose the option with all correct matches.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
B. (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
C. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
D. (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

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A. (1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. (2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
C. (3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. (4) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is: A. Respiration and Locomotion B. Excretion and Locomotion C. Capture and transport of food D. Digestion and Respiration E. Digestion and Excretion Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. (1) A and B Only
B. (2) A and C Only
C. (3) B and C Only
D. (4) B, D and E Only

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is: A. Respiration and Locomotion B. Excretion and Locomotion C. Capture and transport of food D. Digestion and Respiration E. Digestion and Excretion Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. (1) A and B Only
B. (2) A and C Only
C. (3) B and C Only
D. (4) B, D and E Only

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Q167 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

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A. (1) Acquired Immunity
B. (2) Innate Immunity
C. (3) Cell-mediated Immunity
D. (4) Humoral Immunity

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Q168 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

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A. (1) Sexual reproduction
B. (2) Asexual reproduction
C. (3) Nutrient absorption
D. (4) Gaseous exchange

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Q169 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:

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A. (1) Liver and intestine
B. (2) Liver and kidney
C. (3) Kidney and intestine
D. (4) Kidney and lower part of body

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Q170 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q171 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

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A. (1) It is active only in the dark.
B. (2) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
C. (3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
D. (4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. (1) C and D only
B. (2) A and B only
C. (3) D and E only
D. (4) B and C only

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Q173 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Read the following statements on plant growth and development. A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth. C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation. D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds. Choose the option with all correct statements.

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. (1) A, B, C only
B. (2) A, C, E only
C. (3) A, D, E only
D. (4) B, D, E only

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Q174 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)

A. (1) $\alpha$ (alpha)
B. (2) $\sigma$ (sigma)
C. (3) $\rho$ (rho)
D. (4) $\gamma$ (gamma)

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Q175 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following:

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A. (1) The statement is true for water but false for land
B. (2) The statement is true for both the environment
C. (3) The statement is false for water but true for land
D. (4) The statement is false for both the environment

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Q176 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. (1) They are monozygotic twins.
B. (2) They are fraternal twins.
C. (3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
D. (4) They have 75% identical genetic content.

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Q177 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products? A. Aspergillus niger B. Lactobacillus C. Trichoderma polysporum D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae E. Propionibacterium sharmanii Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)

A. (1) A and B only
B. (2) A and C only
C. (3) C and D only
D. (4) C and E only

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Q178 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Hormone) | List-II (Source) A. Progesterone | I. Pars intermedia B. Relaxin | II. Ovary C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone | III. Adrenal Medulla D. Catecholamines | IV. Corpus luteum Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)

A. (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
B. (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
C. (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q179 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II: The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Q179 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Q180 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

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A. $$\frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( \frac{K - N}{K} \right)$$
B. $$\frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( \frac{N - K}{K} \right)$$
C. $$\frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( \frac{N - K}{N} \right)$$
D. $$\frac{dN}{dt} = N \left( \frac{r - K}{K} \right)$$

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