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Q1
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:
-
A.
1.5 A
-
B.
2.0 A
-
C.
0.5 A
-
D.
2.5 A
Q1
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:
-
A.
1.5 A
-
B.
2.0 A
-
C.
0.5 A
-
D.
2.5 A
Q2
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by $E_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ V/m}$. Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field) :
-
A.
$B_y = 60 \sin(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ T}$
-
B.
$B_y = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ T}$
-
C.
$B_x = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ T}$
-
D.
$B_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ T}$
Q2
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by $E_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) V/m$. Then the expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field):
-
A.
$B_y = 60 \sin(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) T$
-
B.
$B_y = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) T$
-
C.
$B_x = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) T$
-
D.
$B_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) T$
Q3
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency $f$ in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to :
-
A.
2f
-
B.
$f/2$
-
C.
f
-
D.
$3f/2$
Q3
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency $f$ in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:
-
A.
2f
-
B.
f/2
-
C.
f
-
D.
3f/2
Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
An electron (mass $9 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg}$ and charge $1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C}$) moving with speed $c/100$ ($c = \text{speed of light}$) is injected into a magnetic field $\vec{B}$ of magnitude $9 \times 10^{-4} \text{ T}$ perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field $\vec{E}$ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light $c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1}$):
-
A.
$\vec{E}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4 \text{ V m}^{-1}$
-
B.
$\vec{E}$ is perpendicular to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4 \text{ V m}^{-1}$
-
C.
$\vec{E}$ is perpendicular to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2 \text{ V m}^{-1}$
-
D.
$\vec{E}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2 \text{ V m}^{-1}$
Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
An electron (mass $9 \times 10^{-31} kg$ and charge $1.6 \times 10^{-19} C$) moving with speed $c/100$ ($c = \text{speed of light}$) is injected into a magnetic field $B$ of magnitude $9 \times 10^{-4} T$ perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field $E$ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light $c = 3 \times 10^8 ms^{-1}$):
-
A.
$E$ is parallel to $B$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4 V m^{-1}$
-
B.
$E$ is perpendicular to $B$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4 V m^{-1}$
-
C.
$E$ is perpendicular to $B$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2 V m^{-1}$
-
D.
$E$ is parallel to $B$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2 V m^{-1}$
Q5
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (p) and magnification (m) for each lens will be, respectively -
-
A.
$p^4$ and $m^4$
-
B.
$4p$ and $4m$
-
C.
$p^4$ and $4m$
-
D.
$4p$ and $m^4$
Q5
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (p) and magnification (m) for each lens will be, respectively -
-
A.
$p^4$ and $m^4$
-
B.
$4p$ and $4m$
-
C.
$p^4$ and $4m$
-
D.
$4p$ and $m^4$
Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be
-
A.
4:1
-
B.
1:4
-
C.
1:2
-
D.
2:1
Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be
-
A.
4:1
-
B.
1:4
-
C.
1:2
-
D.
2:1
Q7
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is :
-
A.
3.0 A
-
B.
1.5 A
-
C.
2.0 A
-
D.
2.5 A
Q9
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
A container has two chambers of volumes $V_1 = 2$ litres and $V_2 = 3$ litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains $n_1 = 5$ and $n_2 = 4$ moles of ideal gas at pressures $p_1 = 1$ atm and $p_2 = 2$ atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of :
-
A.
1.8 atm
-
B.
1.3 atm
-
C.
1.6 atm
-
D.
1.4 atm
Q10
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury ?
-
A.
124 earth days
-
B.
88 earth days
-
C.
225 earth days
-
D.
172 earth days
Q11
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of $20 \Omega$, a capacitor of reactance $25 \Omega$ and an inductor of reactance $45 \Omega$ are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively -
-
A.
15.6 A and 45°
-
B.
7.8 A and 30°
-
C.
7.8 A and 45°
-
D.
15.6 A and 30°
Q12
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is :
-
A.
R/8
-
B.
R/64
-
C.
R/32
-
D.
R/16
Q12
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
A wire of resistance $R$ is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is :
-
A.
$R/8$
-
B.
$R/64$
-
C.
$R/32$
-
D.
$R/16$
Q13
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a ___ gate.
-
A.
NOR
-
B.
AND
-
C.
NAND
-
D.
OR
Q14
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B is best given as :
-
A.
3F/8
-
B.
3F/5
-
C.
2F/3
-
D.
F/2
Q14
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is $F$. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as :
-
A.
$3F/8$
-
B.
$3F/5$
-
C.
$2F/3$
-
D.
$F/2$
Q18
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
A particle of mass $m$ is moving around the origin with a constant force $F$ pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius $r$ of the $n^{th}$ orbit and the particle's speed $v$ in the orbit depend on $n$ as
-
A.
$r \propto n^{4/3}; v \propto n^{-1/3}$
-
B.
$r \propto n^{1/3}; v \propto n^{1/3}$
-
C.
$r \propto n^{1/3}; v \propto n^{2/3}$
-
D.
$r \propto n^{2/3}; v \propto n^{1/3}$
Q22
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm, the magnification in the microscope is
-
A.
250
-
B.
100
-
C.
125
-
D.
150
Q23
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants $k_1$ and $k_2$, respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio $(A_Q/A_P)$ of the amplitude $A_Q$ of mass Q to the amplitude $A_P$ of mass P is:
-
A.
$\sqrt{k_1/k_2}$
-
B.
$k_2/k_1$
-
C.
$k_1/k_2$
-
D.
$\sqrt{k_2/k_1}$
Q25
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
An electric dipole with dipole moment $5 \times 10^{-6}\text{ Cm}$ is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude $4 \times 10^5\text{ N/C}$. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of $60^\circ$ with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:
-
A.
1.5 J
-
B.
0.8 J
-
C.
1.0 J
-
D.
1.2 J
Q26
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
There are two inclined surfaces of equal length ($L$) and same angle of inclination $45^\circ$ with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction ($\mu_k$) between the object and the rough surface is close to:
-
A.
0.75
-
B.
0.25
-
C.
0.40
-
D.
0.5
Q27
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the $n = 2$ state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)
-
A.
2.67 nm
-
B.
0.067 nm
-
C.
0.67 nm
-
D.
1.67 nm
Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A physical quantity P is related to four observations $a, b, c$ and $d$ as follows: $P = a^3 b^2 / (c\sqrt{d})$. The percentage errors of measurement in $a, b, c$ and $d$ are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity P is:
-
A.
15%
-
B.
10%
-
C.
2%
-
D.
13%
Q31
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take $g = 9.8\text{ m/s}^2$):
-
A.
84 NS
-
B.
21 NS
-
C.
7 NS
Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.
-
A.
15 min, 120 km/h
-
B.
9 min, 40 km/h
-
C.
25 min, 100 km/h
-
D.
10 min, 90 km/h
Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature $27^\circ\text{C}$. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to: (Given $R = 100/12\text{ J mol}^{-1}\text{ K}^{-1}$, and molecular mass of $O_2 = 32$, 1 atm pressure = $1.01 \times 10^5\text{ N/m}^2$)
-
A.
0.156 kg
-
B.
0.125 kg
-
C.
0.144 kg
-
D.
0.116 kg
Q36
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field $B$ states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is $n(h/e)$ where $n$ is an integer, $h$ is Planck's constant and $e$ is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be ($m$ is the mass of the electron)
-
A.
$heB / 2nm$
-
B.
$he / nm$
-
C.
$he / 2nm$
-
D.
$heB / nm$
Q37
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:
-
A.
36 N
-
B.
16 N
-
C.
27 N
-
D.
32 N
Q38
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at $x = L$ and can be taken to be very wide in the $z$ direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension $S$ and density $\rho$, the liquid surface makes angle $\theta_0 (\theta_0 << 1)$ with the $x$-axis at $x = L$. If $y(x)$ is the height of the surface then the equation for $y(x)$ is: (take $\theta(x) \approx \sin \theta(x) \approx \tan \theta(x) = dy/dx$, $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity)
-
A.
$dy/dx = \sqrt{\rho g / S} x$
-
B.
$d^2y / dx^2 = (\rho g / S) x$
-
C.
$d^2y / dx^2 = (\rho g / S) y$
-
D.
$d^2y / dx^2 = \sqrt{\rho g / S} x$
Q39
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at 22.5° from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is ($I_0$ is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):
-
A.
$I_0 / 16$
-
B.
$I_0 / 2$
-
C.
$I_0 / 4$
-
D.
$I_0 / 8$
Q40
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
A photon and an electron (mass $m$) have the same energy $E$. The ratio ($\lambda_{\text{photon}} / \lambda_{\text{electron}}$) of their de Broglie wavelengths is: ($c$ is the speed of light)
-
A.
$(1/c) \sqrt{E / 2m}$
-
B.
$\sqrt{E / 2m}$
-
C.
$c \sqrt{2mE}$
-
D.
$c \sqrt{2m / E}$
Q42
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 60° with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (take $g = 10$ m/s$^2$)
-
A.
$200 \sqrt{3}$ N
-
B.
100 N
-
C.
$100 \sqrt{3}$ N
-
D.
200 N
Q43
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity $2K$ while that in the middle has thermal conductivity $K$. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature $3T$ and the right end at $T$. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is $T_1$ and that at the right junction is $T_2$. The ratio $T_1/T_2$ is
-
A.
5/4
-
B.
3/2
-
C.
4/3
-
D.
5/3
Q44
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If $F_A$ and $F_B$ are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio $F_A/F_B$ is
-
A.
1/2
-
B.
3/2
-
C.
2/3
-
D.
1/3
Q45
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A sphere of radius $R$ is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius $2R$ as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is:
-
A.
7/64
-
B.
7/8
-
C.
7/40
-
D.
7/57
Q46
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
If the molar conductivity ($\Lambda_m$) of a $0.050 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$ solution of a monobasic weak acid is $90 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be. [Assume $\Lambda^\circ_+ = 349.6 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$ and $\Lambda^\circ_- = 50.4 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$.]
-
A.
0.215
-
B.
0.115
-
C.
0.125
-
D.
0.225
Q47
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.
Statement II : As bond order increases, the bond length increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
-
B.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
-
C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
-
D.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q48
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes $n = 2 \rightarrow n = 3$ and $n = 4 \rightarrow n = 6$ transitions, respectively, is
-
A.
1/4
-
B.
1/36
-
C.
16
-
D.
9
Q50
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
If the rate constant of a reaction is $0.03 \text{ s}^{-1}$, how much time does it take for $7.2 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$ concentration of the reactant to get reduced to $0.9 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$? (Given: $\log 2 = 0.301$)
-
A.
21.0 s
-
B.
69.3 s
-
C.
23.1 s
-
D.
210 s
Q51
CHEMISTRY
Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
Match List I with List II. List I: (A) $\text{CHCl}_3 + \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{NH}_2$, (B) Crude oil in petroleum industry, (C) Glycerol from spent-lye, (D) Aniline - water. List II: (I) Distillation under reduced pressure, (II) Steam distillation, (III) Fractional distillation, (IV) Simple distillation.
-
A.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
-
B.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
-
C.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
D.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Q53
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?
-
A.
1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane
-
B.
Pent-1-ene
-
C.
2-Methylhex-2-ene
-
D.
1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane
Q58
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?
(1) [Co(NH$_{3}$)$_{5}$Cl]Cl$_{2}$
(2) [Co(NH$_{3}$)$_{3}$Cl$_{3}$]
(3) [Co(NH$_{3}$)$_{4}$Cl$_{2}$]Cl
(4) [Co(NH$_{3}$)$_{6}$]Cl$_{3}$
-
A.
(1)
-
B.
(2)
-
C.
(3)
-
D.
(4)
Q64
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.
Statement II : The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr$^{2+}$ ion (Z = 24) is the same as that of a Nd$^{3+}$ ion (Z = 60).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
-
B.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
-
C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
-
D.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q65
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
If the half-life ($t_{1/2}$) for a first order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is closest to:
-
A.
10 minutes
-
B.
2 minutes
-
C.
4 minutes
-
D.
5 minutes
Q66
CHEMISTRY
Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is:
-
A.
benzenamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > N-ethylethanamine
-
B.
N-methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine > N-ethylethanamine
-
C.
N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > benzenamine > N-methylaniline
-
D.
N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > benzenamine
Q68
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values $K_{a1}$, $K_{a2}$ and $K_{a3}$, respectively, while $K$ is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true?
A. $\log K = \log K_{a1} + \log K_{a2} + \log K_{a3}$
B. H$_{3}$PO$_{4}$ is a stronger acid than H$_{2}$PO$_{4}^{-}$ and HPO$_{4}^{2-}$.
C. $K_{a1} > K_{a2} > K_{a3}$
D. $K_{a1} = \frac{K_{a3} + K_{a2}}{2}$
-
A.
A, B and C only
-
B.
A and B only
-
C.
A and C only
-
D.
B, C and D only
Q69
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Which of the following statements are true?
A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point.
B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same.
C. Ar, K$^{+}$, Cl$^{-}$, Ca$^{2+}$, and S$^{2-}$ are all isoelectronic species.
D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si is Si > Al > Mg > Na.
E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.
-
A.
A, C, and E only
-
B.
A, B, and E only
-
C.
C and E only
-
D.
C and D only
Q70
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.
Statement II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
-
B.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
-
C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Q70
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.
Statement II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
-
B.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
-
C.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
-
D.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Q71
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?
-
A.
(1) 0.015M C6H12O6
-
B.
(2) 0.01M Urea
-
C.
(3) 0.01M KNO3
-
D.
(4) 0.01M Na2SO4
Q72
CHEMISTRY
Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273 - 278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.
Statement II : Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
-
B.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
-
C.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
-
D.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Q73
CHEMISTRY
Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion:
Benzoyl chloride/ester derivative $\rightarrow$ Benzaldehyde.
-
A.
(1) H2 / Pd-BaSO4
-
B.
(2) (i) LiAlH4, (ii) H+/H2O
-
C.
(3) (i) AlH(iBu)2 (ii) H2O
-
D.
(4) (i) NaBH4, (ii) H+/H2O
Q74
CHEMISTRY
Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : R-I undergoes SN2 reaction faster than R-Cl.
Reason (R) : Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
(1) A is false but R is true
-
B.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
-
C.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
-
D.
(4) A is true but R is false
Q75
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is :
-
A.
(1) HCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH
-
B.
(2) (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH
-
C.
(3) CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > HCOOH
-
D.
(4) HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH
Q76
CHEMISTRY
Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to 'Lassaigne's test'?
-
A.
(1) 2CuO + C -> 2Cu + CO2
-
B.
(2) Na + C + N -> NaCN
-
C.
(3) 2Na + S -> Na2S
-
D.
(4) Na + X -> NaX
Q77
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound? (CH3)2CH-CH2-CH3
-
A.
(1) 6
-
B.
(2) 2
-
C.
(3) 3
-
D.
(4) 5
Q78
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Sugar 'X'
A. is found in honey.
B. is a keto sugar.
C. exists in alpha and beta anomeric forms.
D. is laevorotatory.
'X' is:
-
A.
(1) Sucrose
-
B.
(2) D-Glucose
-
C.
(3) D-Fructose
-
D.
(4) Maltose
Q79
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
-
A.
(1) Law of gaseous volume
-
B.
(2) Law of conservation of mass
-
C.
(3) Law of constant proportion
-
D.
(4) Law of multiple proportion
Q79
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
-
A.
Law of gaseous volume
-
B.
Law of conservation of mass
-
C.
Law of constant proportion
-
D.
Law of multiple proportion
Q80
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
Higher yield of NO in N2(g) + O2(g) <=> 2NO(g) can be obtained at [Delta H = +180.7 kJ/mol]
A. higher temperature
B. lower temperature
C. higher concentration of N2
D. higher concentration of O2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
(1) A, C, D only
-
B.
(2) A, D only
-
C.
(3) B, C only
-
D.
(4) B, C, D only
Q81
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Match List -I with List -II.
List-I (Molecule): A. XeO3, B. XeF2, C. XeOF4, D. XeF6.
List-II (Structure): I. sp3d; linear, II. sp3; pyramidal, III. sp3d3; distorted octahedral, IV. sp3d2; square pyramidal.
-
A.
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
-
B.
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
-
C.
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
-
D.
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Q82
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Match List -I with List -II.
List-I (Example): A. Humidity, B. Alloys, C. Amalgams, D. Smoke.
List-II (Type of Solution): I. Solid in solid, II. Liquid in gas, III. Solid in gas, IV. Liquid in solid.
-
A.
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
-
B.
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
C.
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
-
D.
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Q83
CHEMISTRY
Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of $He^+$ and $Li^{2+}$ are [Given $R_H = 2.18 \times 10^{-18}$ J, $a_0 = 52.9$ pm]
-
A.
$E_n(Li^{2+}) = -8.72 \times 10^{-16}$ J; $r_n(Li^{2+}) = 17.6$ pm, $E_n(He^+) = -19.62 \times 10^{-16}$ J; $r_n(He^+) = 17.6$ pm
-
B.
$E_n(Li^{2+}) = -19.62 \times 10^{-18}$ J; $r_n(Li^{2+}) = 17.6$ pm, $E_n(He^+) = -8.72 \times 10^{-18}$ J; $r_n(He^+) = 26.4$ pm
-
C.
$E_n(Li^{2+}) = -8.72 \times 10^{-18}$ J; $r_n(Li^{2+}) = 26.4$ pm, $E_n(He^+) = -19.62 \times 10^{-18}$ J; $r_n(He^+) = 17.6$ pm
-
D.
$E_n(Li^{2+}) = -19.62 \times 10^{-16}$ J; $r_n(Li^{2+}) = 17.6$ pm, $E_n(He^+) = -8.72 \times 10^{-16}$ J; $r_n(He^+) = 26.4$ pm
Q84
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?
A. $[Ne]3s^1$
B. $[Ar]3d^3 4s^2$
C. $[Kr]4d^{10} 5s^2 5p^5$
D. $[Ar]3d^{10} 4s^1$
E. $[Rn]5f^0 6d^2 7s^2$
-
A.
A, C and D only
-
B.
B and E only
-
C.
A and C only
-
D.
D and E only
Q85
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
$C(s) + 2H_2(g) \rightarrow CH_4(g); \Delta H = -74.8$ kJ mol$^{-1}$. Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction? [R $\rightarrow$ reactants; P $\rightarrow$ products]
-
A.
Diagram showing R at higher energy level than P
-
B.
Diagram showing R at lower energy level than P
-
C.
Diagram showing R and P at same energy level
-
D.
None of the above
Q86
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Predict the major product 'P' in the following sequence of reactions: (i) HBr, benzoyl peroxide, (ii) KCN, (iii) Na(Hg)/$C_2H_5OH$
-
A.
Cyclopentyl methyl cyanide
-
B.
Cyclopentylmethylamine
-
C.
Cyclopentanecarboxylic acid
-
D.
Cyclopentyl methyl bromide
Q87
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned
A. $H_2O > NH_3 > CHCl_3$ - dipole moment
B. $XeF_4 > XeO_3 > XeF_2$ - number of lone pairs on central atom
C. $O-H > C-H > N-O$ - bond length
D. $N_2 > O_2 > H_2$ - bond enthalpy
-
A.
B, C only
-
B.
A, D only
-
C.
B, D only
-
D.
A, C only
Q88
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula $C_4H_8O$ is:
Q89
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
For the reaction $A(g) \rightleftharpoons 2B(g)$, the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K. [Given: R = 0.0831 L atm mol$^{-1}$ K$^{-1}$]. $K_p$ for the reaction at 1000 K is
-
A.
0.021
-
B.
83.1
-
C.
2.077 \times 10^5
-
D.
0.033
Q90
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?
-
A.
The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.
-
B.
The solution shows positive deviation.
-
C.
The solution shows negative deviation.
-
D.
The solution is ideal.
Q91
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
-
A.
(KCal m^{-2})yr^{-1}
-
B.
gm^{-2}
-
C.
KCal m^{-2}
-
D.
KCal m^{-3}
Q92
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
The first menstruation is called :
-
A.
Ovulation
-
B.
Menopause
-
C.
Menarche
-
D.
Diapause
Q93
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.
Reason (R) : The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A is false but R is true
-
B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
-
C.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
-
D.
A is true but R is false
Q94
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
-
A.
Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7
-
B.
Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
-
C.
Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
-
D.
Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Q95
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.
Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
-
B.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
-
C.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Q96
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
-
A.
To regulate cell growth
-
B.
To separate the chromosomes
-
C.
To synthesize new DNA
-
D.
To repair damaged DNA
Q97
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
-
A.
No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
-
B.
2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
-
C.
1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
-
D.
1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
Q98
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
-
A.
Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
-
B.
Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
-
C.
The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
-
D.
Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
Q99
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Consider the following:
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
B and C are true
-
B.
A and B are true
-
C.
A and C are true
-
D.
B and D are true
Q100
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
A is false but R is true
-
B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
-
C.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
-
D.
A is true but R is false
Q101
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.
Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
-
B.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
-
C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Q101
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.
Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
-
B.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
-
C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Q102
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
-
A.
Gaseous exchange
-
B.
Sexual reproduction
-
C.
Asexual reproduction
-
D.
Nutrient absorption
Q103
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List I with List II.
List I (A. Adenosine, B. Adenylic acid, C. Adenine, D. Alanine)
List II (I. Nitrogen base, II. Nucleotide, III. Nucleoside, IV. Amino acid)
Choose the option with all correct matches.
-
A.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
-
B.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
-
C.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
D.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Q104
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in $F_3$ generation.
-
A.
Zero
-
B.
1/4
-
C.
1/2
-
D.
1/8
Q105
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
D Only
-
B.
C and D Only
-
C.
B, C and D Only
-
D.
A, C and D Only
Q106
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
-
A.
Chilli
-
B.
Petunia
-
C.
Datura
-
D.
Pea
Q107
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
-
A.
Franklin Stahl
-
B.
George Gamow
-
C.
Francis Crick
-
D.
Jacque Monod
Q108
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.
Statement II : Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
-
B.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
-
C.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Q109
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
-
A.
Analogy, divergent
-
B.
Analogy, convergent
-
C.
Homology, divergent
-
D.
Homology, convergent
Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:
-
A.
Ectoparasite
-
B.
Free living
-
C.
Endoparasite
-
D.
Symbiotic
Q111
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Histones are enriched with -
-
A.
Phenylalanine & Arginine
-
B.
Lysine & Arginine
-
C.
Leucine & Lysine
-
D.
Phenylalanine & Leucine
Q112
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
-
A.
$dN/dt = N(r-K)/K$
-
B.
$dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K$
-
C.
$dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K$ (Correct formula variant)
-
D.
$dN/dt = rN(N-K)/N$
Q113
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A is false but R is true
-
B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
-
C.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
-
D.
A is true but R is false
Q113
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
A is false but R is true
-
B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
-
C.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
-
D.
A is true but R is false
Q114
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
-
A.
It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
-
B.
It is active only in the dark.
-
C.
It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
-
D.
It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
Q114
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
-
A.
It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
-
B.
It is active only in the dark.
-
C.
It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
-
D.
It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
Q115
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List -I with List -II.
List -I (Hormone) | List -II (Source)
A. Progesterone | I. Pars intermedia
B. Relaxin | II. Ovary
C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone | III. Adrenal Medulla
D. Catecholamines | IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
B.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
-
C.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
-
D.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Q116
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The protein portion of an enzyme is called :
-
A.
Prosthetic group
-
B.
Cofactor
-
C.
Coenzyme
-
D.
Apoenzyme
Q118
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
-
A.
Humoral Immunity
-
B.
Acquired Immunity
-
C.
Innate Immunity
-
D.
Cell-mediated Immunity
Q119
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
-
A.
γ (gamma)
-
B.
α (alpha)
-
C.
σ (sigma)
-
D.
ρ (rho)
Q120
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
-
A.
Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
-
B.
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
-
C.
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
-
D.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Q122
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
-
B.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
-
C.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II :
List I | List II
A. The Evil Quartet | I. Cryopreservation
B. Ex situ conservation | II. Alien species invasion
C. Lantana camara | III. Causes of biodiversity losses
D. Dodo | IV. Extinction
Choose the option with all correct matches.
-
A.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
B.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
-
C.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
-
D.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II:
List I:
A. The Evil Quartet
B. Ex situ conservation
C. Lantana camara
D. Dodo
List II:
I. Cryopreservation
II. Alien species invasion
III. Causes of biodiversity losses
IV. Extinction
-
A.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
B.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
-
C.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
-
D.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Q126
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.
-
A.
B, D, E only
-
B.
A, B, C only
-
C.
A, C, E only
-
D.
A, D, E only
Q127
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List I with List II:
List I:
A. Pteridophyte
B. Bryophyte
C. Angiosperm
D. Gymnosperm
List II:
I. Salvia
II. Ginkgo
III. Polytrichum
IV. Salvinia
-
A.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
B.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
-
C.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
-
D.
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Q128
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
-
A.
Its bioavailability will be increased
-
B.
Human body will elicit strong immune response
-
C.
It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
-
D.
Because of structural variation
Q129
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
-
A.
Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
-
B.
Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
-
C.
Seeds are naked.
-
D.
Seeds are absent.
Q130
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following:
-
A.
The statement is false for both the environment
-
B.
The statement is true for water but false for land
-
C.
The statement is true for both the environment
-
D.
The statement is false for water but true for land
Q131
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -
-
A.
Non-complementary ssRNA
-
B.
Complementary dsRNA
-
C.
Inhibitory ssRNA
-
D.
Complementary tRNA
Q132
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
-
A.
They have 75% identical genetic content.
-
B.
They are monozygotic twins.
-
C.
They are fraternal twins.
-
D.
They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
Q133
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II:
List I:
A. Scutellum
B. Non-albuminous seed
C. Epiblast
D. Perisperm
List II:
I. Persistent nucellus
II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed
III. Groundnut
IV. Rudimentary cotyledon
-
A.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
-
B.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
-
C.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
D.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Q134
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
-
A.
Kidney and lower part of body
-
B.
Liver and intestine
-
C.
Liver and kidney
-
D.
Kidney and intestine
Q135
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II:
List I:
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Gastro-intestinal tract
D. Adrenal Cortex
List II:
I. Erythropoietin
II. Aldosterone
III. Atrial natriuretic factor
IV. Secretin
-
A.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
-
B.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
-
C.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
D.
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Q136
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A, B and D Only
-
B.
A, B and C Only
-
C.
A, B, C and D
-
D.
A, C and D Only
Q136
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A, B and D Only
-
B.
A, B and C Only
-
C.
A, B, C and D
-
D.
A, C and D Only
Q137
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
-
A.
Removing clots from blood vessels
-
B.
Curd production
-
C.
Ethanol production
-
D.
Liver disease treatment
Q137
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for:
-
A.
Removing clots from blood vessels
-
B.
Curd production
-
C.
Ethanol production
-
D.
Liver disease treatment
Q138
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
-
A.
Birbal Sahni
-
B.
S. R. Kashyap
-
C.
Ramdeo Misra
-
D.
Ram Udar
Q138
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
-
A.
Birbal Sahni
-
B.
S. R. Kashyap
-
C.
Ramdeo Misra
-
D.
Ram Udar
Q139
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A is false but R is true
-
B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
-
C.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
-
D.
A is true but R is false
Q140
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
B, C, D only
-
B.
A, B only
-
C.
A, B, C only
-
D.
A, B, D only
Q141
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
E, D, C, B, A
-
B.
B, A, D, E, C
-
C.
B, A, E, C, D
-
D.
D, E, C, A, B
Q142
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A is false but R is true
-
B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
-
C.
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
-
D.
A is true but R is false
Q143
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?
-
A.
Catalase
-
B.
RuBisCo
-
C.
Carbonic anhydrase
-
D.
Succinate dehydrogenase
Q144
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Disease) | List-II (Description)
A. Emphysema | I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low $Ca^{++}$ in body fluid
B. Angina Pectoris | II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface
C. Glomerulonephritis | III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
D. Tetany | IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
-
B.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
-
C.
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
-
D.
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Q145
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
-
A.
Phloem parenchyma is absent.
-
B.
Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
-
C.
Vascular bundles are scattered.
-
D.
Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
Q146
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
-
A.
First digit of the fore limb
-
B.
First and Second digit of fore limb
-
C.
First digit of hind limb
-
D.
Second digit of fore limb
Q147
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
-
B.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
-
C.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Q147
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
-
B.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
-
C.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Q148
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.
Q149
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
-
A.
2N^2
-
B.
N^2
-
C.
2^n
-
D.
2n + 1
Q149
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
-
A.
2N^2
-
B.
N^2
-
C.
2^n
-
D.
2n + 1
Q150
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Match List -I with List -II.
List -I (Part) | List -II (Function)
A. Head | I. Enzymes
B. Middle piece | II. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome | III. Energy
D. Tail | IV. Genetic material
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
-
B.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
-
C.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
-
D.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Q151
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In a floral formula EB stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary.
Statement II : In a floral formula $\oplus$ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
-
B.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
-
C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Q152
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
From the statements given below choose the correct option :
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
-
A.
B, D, E are true
-
B.
A, B, C are true
-
C.
A, B, D are true
-
D.
A, B, E are true
Q153
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
C, E, A, B, D
-
B.
A, C, E, B, D
-
C.
C, E, A, D, B
-
D.
A, C, E, D, B
Q154
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
D, E, A, B, C
-
B.
D, E, A, C, B
-
C.
B, E, A, C, D
-
D.
B, E, A, D, C
Q156
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction :
S - G + S# $\to$ S + S# - G
Where, G $\to$ a group other than hydrogen
S $\to$ a substrate
S# $\to$ another substrate
-
A.
Ligase
-
B.
Hydrolase
-
C.
Lyase
-
D.
Transferase
Q158
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
-
A.
Rum
-
B.
Whisky
-
C.
Brandy
-
D.
Beer
Q159
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
-
B.
Both statement I and statement II are correct
-
C.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Q160
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
-
A.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
-
B.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
-
C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
-
D.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Q162
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
-
A.
X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
-
B.
Mendelian inheritance pattern
-
C.
Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
-
D.
Autosomal dominant pattern
Q163
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called :
-
A.
Aleurone layer
-
B.
Coleoptile
-
C.
Coleorhiza
-
D.
Integument
Q165
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
-
A.
Phage
-
B.
Bacterium
-
C.
Yeast
-
D.
Virus
Q165
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
-
A.
Phage
-
B.
Bacterium
-
C.
Yeast
-
D.
Virus
Q166
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
C, D, E only
-
B.
A, B, C only
-
C.
B, C, D only
-
D.
B, C, E only
Q166
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
C, D, E only
-
B.
A, B, C only
-
C.
B, C, D only
-
D.
B, C, E only
Q167
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List-I with List-II.
List -I | List -II
A. Centromere | I. Mitochondrion
B. Cilium | II. Cell division
C. Cristae | III. Cell movement
D. Cell membrane | IV. Phospholipid Bilayer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
-
B.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
-
C.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
-
D.
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Q168
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match List I with List II :
List-I | List-II
A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase | I. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Euchromatin | II. Densely packed and dark-stained
C. Frederick Griffith | III. Loosely packed and light-stained
D. Heterochromatin | IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
-
B.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
-
C.
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
-
D.
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Q169
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
-
A.
Chromosome 10
-
B.
Chromosome X
-
C.
Chromosome Y
-
D.
Chromosome 1
Q170
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
-
A.
A, B, C, E, F only
-
B.
B, D, F only
-
C.
A, C, D, F only
-
D.
A, B, C, D only
Q171
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
-
A.
Protected areas
-
B.
National Park
-
C.
Wildlife Sanctuary
-
D.
Zoos and botanical gardens
Q171
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
-
A.
Protected areas
-
B.
National Park
-
C.
Wildlife Sanctuary
-
D.
Zoos and botanical gardens
Q172
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is :
-
A.
Endoplasmic Reticulum
-
B.
Mesosome
-
C.
Chromatophores
-
D.
Cristae
Q172
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:
-
A.
Endoplasmic Reticulum
-
B.
Mesosome
-
C.
Chromatophores
-
D.
Cristae
Q173
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at Eco RI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
-
A.
Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
-
B.
Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
-
C.
Blue color colonies will be selected.
-
D.
White color colonies will be selected.
Q174
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
-
A.
Vena cava
-
B.
Aorta
-
C.
Pulmonary artery
-
D.
Pulmonary vein
Q175
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
-
A.
E only
-
B.
A only
-
C.
D only
-
D.
B only
Q176
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
-
A.
Spongocoelomate
-
B.
Acoelomate
-
C.
Pseudocoelomate
-
D.
Schizocoelomate
Q177
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?
-
A.
Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
-
B.
Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
-
C.
Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
-
D.
Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
Q178
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
-
A.
Amensalism
-
B.
Commensalism
-
C.
Mutualism
-
D.
Predation
Q179
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
-
A.
Cytokinin
-
B.
Ethylene
-
C.
Abscisic acid
-
D.
Gibberellin
Q180
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
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A.
NADH dehydrogenase
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B.
Cytochrome bc1
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C.
Succinate dehydrogenase
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D.
Cytochrome c oxidase