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2025-NEET-SET-CODE-47

170 questions from this NEET 2025 paper. Log in to view the correct answer and explanation for each question.

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Q1 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:
Question 1 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 1.5 A
  • B. 2.0 A
  • C. 0.5 A
  • D. 2.5 A

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Q1 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:
Question 1 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 1.5 A
  • B. 2.0 A
  • C. 0.5 A
  • D. 2.5 A

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by $E_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ V/m}$. Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field) :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. $B_y = 60 \sin(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ T}$
  • B. $B_y = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ T}$
  • C. $B_x = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ T}$
  • D. $B_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) \text{ T}$

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by $E_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) V/m$. Then the expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. $B_y = 60 \sin(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) T$
  • B. $B_y = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) T$
  • C. $B_x = 2 \times 10^{-7} \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) T$
  • D. $B_z = 60 \cos(5x + 1.5 \times 10^9 t) T$

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency $f$ in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 2f
  • B. $f/2$
  • C. f
  • D. $3f/2$

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency $f$ in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 2f
  • B. f/2
  • C. f
  • D. 3f/2

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
An electron (mass $9 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg}$ and charge $1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C}$) moving with speed $c/100$ ($c = \text{speed of light}$) is injected into a magnetic field $\vec{B}$ of magnitude $9 \times 10^{-4} \text{ T}$ perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field $\vec{E}$ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light $c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1}$):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. $\vec{E}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4 \text{ V m}^{-1}$
  • B. $\vec{E}$ is perpendicular to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4 \text{ V m}^{-1}$
  • C. $\vec{E}$ is perpendicular to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2 \text{ V m}^{-1}$
  • D. $\vec{E}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2 \text{ V m}^{-1}$

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
An electron (mass $9 \times 10^{-31} kg$ and charge $1.6 \times 10^{-19} C$) moving with speed $c/100$ ($c = \text{speed of light}$) is injected into a magnetic field $B$ of magnitude $9 \times 10^{-4} T$ perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field $E$ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light $c = 3 \times 10^8 ms^{-1}$):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. $E$ is parallel to $B$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4 V m^{-1}$
  • B. $E$ is perpendicular to $B$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^4 V m^{-1}$
  • C. $E$ is perpendicular to $B$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2 V m^{-1}$
  • D. $E$ is parallel to $B$ and its magnitude is $27 \times 10^2 V m^{-1}$

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (p) and magnification (m) for each lens will be, respectively -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. $p^4$ and $m^4$
  • B. $4p$ and $4m$
  • C. $p^4$ and $4m$
  • D. $4p$ and $m^4$

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (p) and magnification (m) for each lens will be, respectively -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. $p^4$ and $m^4$
  • B. $4p$ and $4m$
  • C. $p^4$ and $4m$
  • D. $4p$ and $m^4$

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. 4:1
  • B. 1:4
  • C. 1:2
  • D. 2:1

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. 4:1
  • B. 1:4
  • C. 1:2
  • D. 2:1

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Q7 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is :
Question 7 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 3.0 A
  • B. 1.5 A
  • C. 2.0 A
  • D. 2.5 A

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
A container has two chambers of volumes $V_1 = 2$ litres and $V_2 = 3$ litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains $n_1 = 5$ and $n_2 = 4$ moles of ideal gas at pressures $p_1 = 1$ atm and $p_2 = 2$ atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. 1.8 atm
  • B. 1.3 atm
  • C. 1.6 atm
  • D. 1.4 atm

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Q10 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 124 earth days
  • B. 88 earth days
  • C. 225 earth days
  • D. 172 earth days

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Q11 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of $20 \Omega$, a capacitor of reactance $25 \Omega$ and an inductor of reactance $45 \Omega$ are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively -
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 15.6 A and 45°
  • B. 7.8 A and 30°
  • C. 7.8 A and 45°
  • D. 15.6 A and 30°

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Q12 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. R/8
  • B. R/64
  • C. R/32
  • D. R/16

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Q12 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity
A wire of resistance $R$ is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. $R/8$
  • B. $R/64$
  • C. $R/32$
  • D. $R/16$

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Q13 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices
The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a ___ gate.
Question 13 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. NOR
  • B. AND
  • C. NAND
  • D. OR

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B is best given as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. 3F/8
  • B. 3F/5
  • C. 2F/3
  • D. F/2

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Q14 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is $F$. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. $3F/8$
  • B. $3F/5$
  • C. $2F/3$
  • D. $F/2$

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
A particle of mass $m$ is moving around the origin with a constant force $F$ pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius $r$ of the $n^{th}$ orbit and the particle's speed $v$ in the orbit depend on $n$ as
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. $r \propto n^{4/3}; v \propto n^{-1/3}$
  • B. $r \propto n^{1/3}; v \propto n^{1/3}$
  • C. $r \propto n^{1/3}; v \propto n^{2/3}$
  • D. $r \propto n^{2/3}; v \propto n^{1/3}$

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Q22 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm, the magnification in the microscope is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. 250
  • B. 100
  • C. 125
  • D. 150

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Q23 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants $k_1$ and $k_2$, respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio $(A_Q/A_P)$ of the amplitude $A_Q$ of mass Q to the amplitude $A_P$ of mass P is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. $\sqrt{k_1/k_2}$
  • B. $k_2/k_1$
  • C. $k_1/k_2$
  • D. $\sqrt{k_2/k_1}$

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics
An electric dipole with dipole moment $5 \times 10^{-6}\text{ Cm}$ is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude $4 \times 10^5\text{ N/C}$. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of $60^\circ$ with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 1.5 J
  • B. 0.8 J
  • C. 1.0 J
  • D. 1.2 J

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion
There are two inclined surfaces of equal length ($L$) and same angle of inclination $45^\circ$ with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction ($\mu_k$) between the object and the rough surface is close to:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. 0.75
  • B. 0.25
  • C. 0.40
  • D. 0.5

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Q27 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the $n = 2$ state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 2.67 nm
  • B. 0.067 nm
  • C. 0.67 nm
  • D. 1.67 nm

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
A physical quantity P is related to four observations $a, b, c$ and $d$ as follows: $P = a^3 b^2 / (c\sqrt{d})$. The percentage errors of measurement in $a, b, c$ and $d$ are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity P is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 15%
  • B. 10%
  • C. 2%
  • D. 13%

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take $g = 9.8\text{ m/s}^2$):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. 84 NS
  • B. 21 NS
  • C. 7 NS

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics
Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. 15 min, 120 km/h
  • B. 9 min, 40 km/h
  • C. 25 min, 100 km/h
  • D. 10 min, 90 km/h

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature $27^\circ\text{C}$. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to: (Given $R = 100/12\text{ J mol}^{-1}\text{ K}^{-1}$, and molecular mass of $O_2 = 32$, 1 atm pressure = $1.01 \times 10^5\text{ N/m}^2$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. 0.156 kg
  • B. 0.125 kg
  • C. 0.144 kg
  • D. 0.116 kg

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Q36 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field $B$ states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is $n(h/e)$ where $n$ is an integer, $h$ is Planck's constant and $e$ is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be ($m$ is the mass of the electron)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. $heB / 2nm$
  • B. $he / nm$
  • C. $he / 2nm$
  • D. $heB / nm$

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Q37 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation
A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 36 N
  • B. 16 N
  • C. 27 N
  • D. 32 N

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Q38 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at $x = L$ and can be taken to be very wide in the $z$ direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension $S$ and density $\rho$, the liquid surface makes angle $\theta_0 (\theta_0 << 1)$ with the $x$-axis at $x = L$. If $y(x)$ is the height of the surface then the equation for $y(x)$ is: (take $\theta(x) \approx \sin \theta(x) \approx \tan \theta(x) = dy/dx$, $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. $dy/dx = \sqrt{\rho g / S} x$
  • B. $d^2y / dx^2 = (\rho g / S) x$
  • C. $d^2y / dx^2 = (\rho g / S) y$
  • D. $d^2y / dx^2 = \sqrt{\rho g / S} x$

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Q39 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics
The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at 22.5° from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is ($I_0$ is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. $I_0 / 16$
  • B. $I_0 / 2$
  • C. $I_0 / 4$
  • D. $I_0 / 8$

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Q40 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
A photon and an electron (mass $m$) have the same energy $E$. The ratio ($\lambda_{\text{photon}} / \lambda_{\text{electron}}$) of their de Broglie wavelengths is: ($c$ is the speed of light)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. $(1/c) \sqrt{E / 2m}$
  • B. $\sqrt{E / 2m}$
  • C. $c \sqrt{2mE}$
  • D. $c \sqrt{2m / E}$

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Q42 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 60° with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (take $g = 10$ m/s$^2$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. $200 \sqrt{3}$ N
  • B. 100 N
  • C. $100 \sqrt{3}$ N
  • D. 200 N

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Q43 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics
Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity $2K$ while that in the middle has thermal conductivity $K$. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature $3T$ and the right end at $T$. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is $T_1$ and that at the right junction is $T_2$. The ratio $T_1/T_2$ is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 5/4
  • B. 3/2
  • C. 4/3
  • D. 5/3

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Q44 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If $F_A$ and $F_B$ are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio $F_A/F_B$ is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 1/2
  • B. 3/2
  • C. 2/3
  • D. 1/3

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Q45 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A sphere of radius $R$ is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius $2R$ as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. 7/64
  • B. 7/8
  • C. 7/40
  • D. 7/57

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Q46 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
If the molar conductivity ($\Lambda_m$) of a $0.050 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$ solution of a monobasic weak acid is $90 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be. [Assume $\Lambda^\circ_+ = 349.6 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$ and $\Lambda^\circ_- = 50.4 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$.]
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. 0.215
  • B. 0.115
  • C. 0.125
  • D. 0.225

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Q47 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Given below are two statements : Statement I : A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable. Statement II : As bond order increases, the bond length increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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Q48 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes $n = 2 \rightarrow n = 3$ and $n = 4 \rightarrow n = 6$ transitions, respectively, is
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 1/4
  • B. 1/36
  • C. 16
  • D. 9

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Q50 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
If the rate constant of a reaction is $0.03 \text{ s}^{-1}$, how much time does it take for $7.2 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$ concentration of the reactant to get reduced to $0.9 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$? (Given: $\log 2 = 0.301$)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. 21.0 s
  • B. 69.3 s
  • C. 23.1 s
  • D. 210 s

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Q51 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
Match List I with List II. List I: (A) $\text{CHCl}_3 + \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{NH}_2$, (B) Crude oil in petroleum industry, (C) Glycerol from spent-lye, (D) Aniline - water. List II: (I) Distillation under reduced pressure, (II) Steam distillation, (III) Fractional distillation, (IV) Simple distillation.
  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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Q53 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane
  • B. Pent-1-ene
  • C. 2-Methylhex-2-ene
  • D. 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution? (1) [Co(NH$_{3}$)$_{5}$Cl]Cl$_{2}$ (2) [Co(NH$_{3}$)$_{3}$Cl$_{3}$] (3) [Co(NH$_{3}$)$_{4}$Cl$_{2}$]Cl (4) [Co(NH$_{3}$)$_{6}$]Cl$_{3}$
  • A. (1)
  • B. (2)
  • C. (3)
  • D. (4)

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Q64 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism. Statement II : The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr$^{2+}$ ion (Z = 24) is the same as that of a Nd$^{3+}$ ion (Z = 60). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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Q65 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
If the half-life ($t_{1/2}$) for a first order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is closest to:
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  • A. 10 minutes
  • B. 2 minutes
  • C. 4 minutes
  • D. 5 minutes

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Q66 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is:
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  • A. benzenamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > N-ethylethanamine
  • B. N-methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine > N-ethylethanamine
  • C. N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > benzenamine > N-methylaniline
  • D. N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > benzenamine

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Q68 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values $K_{a1}$, $K_{a2}$ and $K_{a3}$, respectively, while $K$ is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true? A. $\log K = \log K_{a1} + \log K_{a2} + \log K_{a3}$ B. H$_{3}$PO$_{4}$ is a stronger acid than H$_{2}$PO$_{4}^{-}$ and HPO$_{4}^{2-}$. C. $K_{a1} > K_{a2} > K_{a3}$ D. $K_{a1} = \frac{K_{a3} + K_{a2}}{2}$
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  • A. A, B and C only
  • B. A and B only
  • C. A and C only
  • D. B, C and D only

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Which of the following statements are true? A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point. B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same. C. Ar, K$^{+}$, Cl$^{-}$, Ca$^{2+}$, and S$^{2-}$ are all isoelectronic species. D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si is Si > Al > Mg > Na. E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.
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  • A. A, C, and E only
  • B. A, B, and E only
  • C. C and E only
  • D. C and D only

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine. Statement II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine. Statement II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
  • A. (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?
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  • A. (1) 0.015M C6H12O6
  • B. (2) 0.01M Urea
  • C. (3) 0.01M KNO3
  • D. (4) 0.01M Na2SO4

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273 - 278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state. Statement II : Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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  • A. (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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Q73 CHEMISTRY Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion: Benzoyl chloride/ester derivative $\rightarrow$ Benzaldehyde.
  • A. (1) H2 / Pd-BaSO4
  • B. (2) (i) LiAlH4, (ii) H+/H2O
  • C. (3) (i) AlH(iBu)2 (ii) H2O
  • D. (4) (i) NaBH4, (ii) H+/H2O

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Q74 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : R-I undergoes SN2 reaction faster than R-Cl. Reason (R) : Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. (1) A is false but R is true
  • B. (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C. (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • D. (4) A is true but R is false

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Q75 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is :
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  • A. (1) HCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH
  • B. (2) (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH
  • C. (3) CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > HCOOH
  • D. (4) HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH

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Q76 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to 'Lassaigne's test'?
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  • A. (1) 2CuO + C -> 2Cu + CO2
  • B. (2) Na + C + N -> NaCN
  • C. (3) 2Na + S -> Na2S
  • D. (4) Na + X -> NaX

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Q77 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound? (CH3)2CH-CH2-CH3
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  • A. (1) 6
  • B. (2) 2
  • C. (3) 3
  • D. (4) 5

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Q78 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules
Sugar 'X' A. is found in honey. B. is a keto sugar. C. exists in alpha and beta anomeric forms. D. is laevorotatory. 'X' is:
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  • A. (1) Sucrose
  • B. (2) D-Glucose
  • C. (3) D-Fructose
  • D. (4) Maltose

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
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  • A. (1) Law of gaseous volume
  • B. (2) Law of conservation of mass
  • C. (3) Law of constant proportion
  • D. (4) Law of multiple proportion

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
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  • A. Law of gaseous volume
  • B. Law of conservation of mass
  • C. Law of constant proportion
  • D. Law of multiple proportion

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Q80 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
Higher yield of NO in N2(g) + O2(g) <=> 2NO(g) can be obtained at [Delta H = +180.7 kJ/mol] A. higher temperature B. lower temperature C. higher concentration of N2 D. higher concentration of O2 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. (1) A, C, D only
  • B. (2) A, D only
  • C. (3) B, C only
  • D. (4) B, C, D only

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Match List -I with List -II. List-I (Molecule): A. XeO3, B. XeF2, C. XeOF4, D. XeF6. List-II (Structure): I. sp3d; linear, II. sp3; pyramidal, III. sp3d3; distorted octahedral, IV. sp3d2; square pyramidal.
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  • A. (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • B. (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • C. (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • D. (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

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Q82 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
Match List -I with List -II. List-I (Example): A. Humidity, B. Alloys, C. Amalgams, D. Smoke. List-II (Type of Solution): I. Solid in solid, II. Liquid in gas, III. Solid in gas, IV. Liquid in solid.
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  • A. (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • B. (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • C. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • D. (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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Q83 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of $He^+$ and $Li^{2+}$ are [Given $R_H = 2.18 \times 10^{-18}$ J, $a_0 = 52.9$ pm]
  • A. $E_n(Li^{2+}) = -8.72 \times 10^{-16}$ J; $r_n(Li^{2+}) = 17.6$ pm, $E_n(He^+) = -19.62 \times 10^{-16}$ J; $r_n(He^+) = 17.6$ pm
  • B. $E_n(Li^{2+}) = -19.62 \times 10^{-18}$ J; $r_n(Li^{2+}) = 17.6$ pm, $E_n(He^+) = -8.72 \times 10^{-18}$ J; $r_n(He^+) = 26.4$ pm
  • C. $E_n(Li^{2+}) = -8.72 \times 10^{-18}$ J; $r_n(Li^{2+}) = 26.4$ pm, $E_n(He^+) = -19.62 \times 10^{-18}$ J; $r_n(He^+) = 17.6$ pm
  • D. $E_n(Li^{2+}) = -19.62 \times 10^{-16}$ J; $r_n(Li^{2+}) = 17.6$ pm, $E_n(He^+) = -8.72 \times 10^{-16}$ J; $r_n(He^+) = 26.4$ pm

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Q84 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements? A. $[Ne]3s^1$ B. $[Ar]3d^3 4s^2$ C. $[Kr]4d^{10} 5s^2 5p^5$ D. $[Ar]3d^{10} 4s^1$ E. $[Rn]5f^0 6d^2 7s^2$
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  • A. A, C and D only
  • B. B and E only
  • C. A and C only
  • D. D and E only

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
$C(s) + 2H_2(g) \rightarrow CH_4(g); \Delta H = -74.8$ kJ mol$^{-1}$. Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction? [R $\rightarrow$ reactants; P $\rightarrow$ products]
Question 85 image
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  • A. Diagram showing R at higher energy level than P
  • B. Diagram showing R at lower energy level than P
  • C. Diagram showing R and P at same energy level
  • D. None of the above

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Predict the major product 'P' in the following sequence of reactions: (i) HBr, benzoyl peroxide, (ii) KCN, (iii) Na(Hg)/$C_2H_5OH$
Question 86 image
  • A. Cyclopentyl methyl cyanide
  • B. Cyclopentylmethylamine
  • C. Cyclopentanecarboxylic acid
  • D. Cyclopentyl methyl bromide

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Q87 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned A. $H_2O > NH_3 > CHCl_3$ - dipole moment B. $XeF_4 > XeO_3 > XeF_2$ - number of lone pairs on central atom C. $O-H > C-H > N-O$ - bond length D. $N_2 > O_2 > H_2$ - bond enthalpy
  • A. B, C only
  • B. A, D only
  • C. B, D only
  • D. A, C only

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Q88 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula $C_4H_8O$ is:
  • A. 11
  • B. 6
  • C. 8
  • D. 10

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Q89 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium
For the reaction $A(g) \rightleftharpoons 2B(g)$, the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K. [Given: R = 0.0831 L atm mol$^{-1}$ K$^{-1}$]. $K_p$ for the reaction at 1000 K is
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  • A. 0.021
  • B. 83.1
  • C. 2.077 \times 10^5
  • D. 0.033

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions
5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?
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  • A. The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.
  • B. The solution shows positive deviation.
  • C. The solution shows negative deviation.
  • D. The solution is ideal.

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Q91 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
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  • A. (KCal m^{-2})yr^{-1}
  • B. gm^{-2}
  • C. KCal m^{-2}
  • D. KCal m^{-3}

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Q92 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
The first menstruation is called :
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  • A. Ovulation
  • B. Menopause
  • C. Menarche
  • D. Diapause

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Q93 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate. Reason (R) : The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. A is false but R is true
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • D. A is true but R is false

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Q94 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
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  • A. Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7
  • B. Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
  • C. Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
  • D. Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

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Q95 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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  • A. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • B. Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • C. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

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Q96 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
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  • A. To regulate cell growth
  • B. To separate the chromosomes
  • C. To synthesize new DNA
  • D. To repair damaged DNA

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Q97 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
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  • A. No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
  • B. 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
  • C. 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
  • D. 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

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Q98 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
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  • A. Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
  • B. Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
  • C. The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
  • D. Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.

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Q99 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Consider the following: A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females. C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte. D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • A. B and C are true
  • B. A and B are true
  • C. A and C are true
  • D. B and D are true

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Q100 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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  • A. A is false but R is true
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • D. A is true but R is false

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
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  • A. Gaseous exchange
  • B. Sexual reproduction
  • C. Asexual reproduction
  • D. Nutrient absorption

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List I with List II. List I (A. Adenosine, B. Adenylic acid, C. Adenine, D. Alanine) List II (I. Nitrogen base, II. Nucleotide, III. Nucleoside, IV. Amino acid) Choose the option with all correct matches.
  • A. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in $F_3$ generation.
Question 104 image
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  • A. Zero
  • B. 1/4
  • C. 1/2
  • D. 1/8

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones: A. It causes pupilary constriction B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone C. It causes piloerection D. It increases strength of heart contraction Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. D Only
  • B. C and D Only
  • C. B, C and D Only
  • D. A, C and D Only

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
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  • A. Chilli
  • B. Petunia
  • C. Datura
  • D. Pea

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
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  • A. Franklin Stahl
  • B. George Gamow
  • C. Francis Crick
  • D. Jacque Monod

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements: Statement I : In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. Statement II : Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • B. Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • C. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
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  • A. Analogy, divergent
  • B. Analogy, convergent
  • C. Homology, divergent
  • D. Homology, convergent

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:
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  • A. Ectoparasite
  • B. Free living
  • C. Endoparasite
  • D. Symbiotic

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Histones are enriched with -
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  • A. Phenylalanine & Arginine
  • B. Lysine & Arginine
  • C. Leucine & Lysine
  • D. Phenylalanine & Leucine

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
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  • A. $dN/dt = N(r-K)/K$
  • B. $dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K$
  • C. $dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K$ (Correct formula variant)
  • D. $dN/dt = rN(N-K)/N$

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. A is false but R is true
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • D. A is true but R is false

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. A is false but R is true
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • D. A is true but R is false

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
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  • A. It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
  • B. It is active only in the dark.
  • C. It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
  • D. It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
  • B. It is active only in the dark.
  • C. It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
  • D. It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List -I with List -II. List -I (Hormone) | List -II (Source) A. Progesterone | I. Pars intermedia B. Relaxin | II. Ovary C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone | III. Adrenal Medulla D. Catecholamines | IV. Corpus luteum Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The protein portion of an enzyme is called :
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  • A. Prosthetic group
  • B. Cofactor
  • C. Coenzyme
  • D. Apoenzyme

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
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  • A. Humoral Immunity
  • B. Acquired Immunity
  • C. Innate Immunity
  • D. Cell-mediated Immunity

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
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  • A. γ (gamma)
  • B. α (alpha)
  • C. σ (sigma)
  • D. ρ (rho)

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
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  • A. Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
  • B. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • C. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
  • D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • B. Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • C. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

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Q125 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II : List I | List II A. The Evil Quartet | I. Cryopreservation B. Ex situ conservation | II. Alien species invasion C. Lantana camara | III. Causes of biodiversity losses D. Dodo | IV. Extinction Choose the option with all correct matches.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q125 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Match List I with List II: List I: A. The Evil Quartet B. Ex situ conservation C. Lantana camara D. Dodo List II: I. Cryopreservation II. Alien species invasion III. Causes of biodiversity losses IV. Extinction
  • A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q126 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Read the following statements on plant growth and development. A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth. C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation. D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds. Choose the option with all correct statements.
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  • A. B, D, E only
  • B. A, B, C only
  • C. A, C, E only
  • D. A, D, E only

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Match List I with List II: List I: A. Pteridophyte B. Bryophyte C. Angiosperm D. Gymnosperm List II: I. Salvia II. Ginkgo III. Polytrichum IV. Salvinia
  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
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  • A. Its bioavailability will be increased
  • B. Human body will elicit strong immune response
  • C. It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
  • D. Because of structural variation

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
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  • A. Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
  • B. Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
  • C. Seeds are naked.
  • D. Seeds are absent.

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following:
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  • A. The statement is false for both the environment
  • B. The statement is true for water but false for land
  • C. The statement is true for both the environment
  • D. The statement is false for water but true for land

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Q131 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -
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  • A. Non-complementary ssRNA
  • B. Complementary dsRNA
  • C. Inhibitory ssRNA
  • D. Complementary tRNA

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
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  • A. They have 75% identical genetic content.
  • B. They are monozygotic twins.
  • C. They are fraternal twins.
  • D. They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I: A. Scutellum B. Non-albuminous seed C. Epiblast D. Perisperm List II: I. Persistent nucellus II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed III. Groundnut IV. Rudimentary cotyledon
  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

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Q134 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
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  • A. Kidney and lower part of body
  • B. Liver and intestine
  • C. Liver and kidney
  • D. Kidney and intestine

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List I with List II: List I: A. Heart B. Kidney C. Gastro-intestinal tract D. Adrenal Cortex List II: I. Erythropoietin II. Aldosterone III. Atrial natriuretic factor IV. Secretin
  • A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by: A. Nodal tissue B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Adrenal cortical hormones Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. A, B and D Only
  • B. A, B and C Only
  • C. A, B, C and D
  • D. A, C and D Only

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by: A. Nodal tissue B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Adrenal cortical hormones Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. A, B and D Only
  • B. A, B and C Only
  • C. A, B, C and D
  • D. A, C and D Only

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Q137 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. Removing clots from blood vessels
  • B. Curd production
  • C. Ethanol production
  • D. Liver disease treatment

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Q137 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for:
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  • A. Removing clots from blood vessels
  • B. Curd production
  • C. Ethanol production
  • D. Liver disease treatment

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Q138 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
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  • A. Birbal Sahni
  • B. S. R. Kashyap
  • C. Ramdeo Misra
  • D. Ram Udar

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Q138 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. Birbal Sahni
  • B. S. R. Kashyap
  • C. Ramdeo Misra
  • D. Ram Udar

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. A is false but R is true
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • D. A is true but R is false

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to: A. A mass of proliferating cell B. Rapid growth of cells C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue D. Those confined to original location Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. B, C, D only
  • B. A, B only
  • C. A, B, C only
  • D. A, B, D only

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Q141 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence. A. Prothallus stage B. Meiosis in spore mother cells C. Fertilisation D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte. E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. E, D, C, B, A
  • B. B, A, D, E, C
  • C. B, A, E, C, D
  • D. D, E, C, A, B

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (4 sets)
  • A. A is false but R is true
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • D. A is true but R is false

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Q143 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?
  • A. Catalase
  • B. RuBisCo
  • C. Carbonic anhydrase
  • D. Succinate dehydrogenase

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Q144 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Disease) | List-II (Description) A. Emphysema | I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low $Ca^{++}$ in body fluid B. Angina Pectoris | II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface C. Glomerulonephritis | III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle D. Tetany | IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

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Q145 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
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  • A. Phloem parenchyma is absent.
  • B. Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
  • C. Vascular bundles are scattered.
  • D. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.

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Q146 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (2 sets)
  • A. First digit of the fore limb
  • B. First and Second digit of fore limb
  • C. First digit of hind limb
  • D. Second digit of fore limb

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • B. Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • C. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • B. Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • C. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.
Question 148 image
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  • A. C
  • B. A
  • C. B
  • D. D

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Q149 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
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  • A. 2N^2
  • B. N^2
  • C. 2^n
  • D. 2n + 1

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Q149 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
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  • A. 2N^2
  • B. N^2
  • C. 2^n
  • D. 2n + 1

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Q150 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
Match List -I with List -II. List -I (Part) | List -II (Function) A. Head | I. Enzymes B. Middle piece | II. Sperm motility C. Acrosome | III. Energy D. Tail | IV. Genetic material Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Given below are two statements : Statement I : In a floral formula EB stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary. Statement II : In a floral formula $\oplus$ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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Q152 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
From the statements given below choose the correct option : A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S. D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S. E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
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  • A. B, D, E are true
  • B. A, B, C are true
  • C. A, B, D are true
  • D. A, B, E are true

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Q153 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization. A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin. B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization. C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids. D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization. E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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  • A. C, E, A, B, D
  • B. A, C, E, B, D
  • C. C, E, A, D, B
  • D. A, C, E, D, B

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Q154 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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  • A. D, E, A, B, C
  • B. D, E, A, C, B
  • C. B, E, A, C, D
  • D. B, E, A, D, C

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Q156 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction : S - G + S# $\to$ S + S# - G Where, G $\to$ a group other than hydrogen S $\to$ a substrate S# $\to$ another substrate
  • A. Ligase
  • B. Hydrolase
  • C. Lyase
  • D. Transferase

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Q158 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
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  • A. Rum
  • B. Whisky
  • C. Brandy
  • D. Beer

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Q159 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements : Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • B. Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • C. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

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Q160 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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Q162 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
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  • A. X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
  • B. Mendelian inheritance pattern
  • C. Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
  • D. Autosomal dominant pattern

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Q163 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called :
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  • A. Aleurone layer
  • B. Coleoptile
  • C. Coleorhiza
  • D. Integument

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
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  • A. Phage
  • B. Bacterium
  • C. Yeast
  • D. Virus

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. Phage
  • B. Bacterium
  • C. Yeast
  • D. Virus

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell? A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing. B. Removal of introns and joining of exons. C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA. D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA. E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. C, D, E only
  • B. A, B, C only
  • C. B, C, D only
  • D. B, C, E only

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell? A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing. B. Removal of introns and joining of exons. C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA. D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA. E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. C, D, E only
  • B. A, B, C only
  • C. B, C, D only
  • D. B, C, E only

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Q167 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List-I with List-II. List -I | List -II A. Centromere | I. Mitochondrion B. Cilium | II. Cell division C. Cristae | III. Cell movement D. Cell membrane | IV. Phospholipid Bilayer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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  • A. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

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Q168 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match List I with List II : List-I | List-II A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase | I. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Euchromatin | II. Densely packed and dark-stained C. Frederick Griffith | III. Loosely packed and light-stained D. Heterochromatin | IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)
  • A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • C. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

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Q169 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
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  • A. Chromosome 10
  • B. Chromosome X
  • C. Chromosome Y
  • D. Chromosome 1

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Q170 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction
What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method? A. High fatality risk to mother B. Expensive instruments and reagents C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors D. Less adoption of orphans E. Not available in India F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. A, B, C, E, F only
  • B. B, D, F only
  • C. A, C, D, F only
  • D. A, B, C, D only

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Q171 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
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  • A. Protected areas
  • B. National Park
  • C. Wildlife Sanctuary
  • D. Zoos and botanical gardens

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Q171 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. Protected areas
  • B. National Park
  • C. Wildlife Sanctuary
  • D. Zoos and botanical gardens

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is :
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  • A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • B. Mesosome
  • C. Chromatophores
  • D. Cristae

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (5 sets)
  • A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • B. Mesosome
  • C. Chromatophores
  • D. Cristae

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Q173 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at Eco RI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
Question 173 image
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
  • B. Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
  • C. Blue color colonies will be selected.
  • D. White color colonies will be selected.

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Q174 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology
What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
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  • A. Vena cava
  • B. Aorta
  • C. Pulmonary artery
  • D. Pulmonary vein

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Q175 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria C. Anabaena D. Volvox E. Nostoc Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A. E only
  • B. A only
  • C. D only
  • D. B only

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Q176 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
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  • A. Spongocoelomate
  • B. Acoelomate
  • C. Pseudocoelomate
  • D. Schizocoelomate

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Q177 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?
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  • A. Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
  • B. Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
  • C. Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
  • D. Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

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Q178 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
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  • A. Amensalism
  • B. Commensalism
  • C. Mutualism
  • D. Predation

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Q179 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
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  • A. Cytokinin
  • B. Ethylene
  • C. Abscisic acid
  • D. Gibberellin

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Q180 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (3 sets)
  • A. NADH dehydrogenase
  • B. Cytochrome bc1
  • C. Succinate dehydrogenase
  • D. Cytochrome c oxidase

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