NEET 2025 CODE 45 — NEET 2025 Question Paper

Q1 PHYSICS Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids

Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at x = L and can be taken to be very wide in the z direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension S and density ρ, the liquid surface makes angle θo (θo << 1) with the x-axis at x = L. If y(x) is the height of the surface then the equation for y(x) is: (take θ(x) ≈ sin θ(x) ≈ tan θ(x) = dy/dx, g is the acceleration due to gravity)

A. (d^2y / dx^2) = (ρg/S)y
B. (d^2y / dx^2) = (ρg/S)x
C. (d^2y / dx^2) = (ρg/S)
D. (dy / dx) = (ρg/S)x

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Q2 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm, the magnification in the microscope is

A. 100
B. 125
C. 150
D. 250

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Q3 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

An electron (mass 9 × 10^-31 kg and charge 1.6 × 10^-19 C) moving with speed c/100 (c = speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field B of magnitude 9 × 10^-4 T perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply an uniform electric E together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light c = 3 × 10^8 ms^-1)

A. E is perpendicular to B and its magnitude is 27 × 10^4 V m^-1
B. E is perpendicular to B and its magnitude is 27 × 10^2 V m^-1
C. E is parallel to B and its magnitude is 27 × 10^2 V m^-1
D. E is parallel to B and its magnitude is 27 × 10^4 V m^-1

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Q4 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

There are two inclined surfaces of equal length (L) and same angle of inclination 45º with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction (μk) between the object and the rough surface is close to

A. 0.25
B. 0.40
C. 0.5
D. 0.75

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Q5 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If FA and FB are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio FA/FB is

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A. 3/2
B. 2/3
C. 1/3
D. 1/2

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Q6 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

The current passing through the battery in the given circuit is:

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A. 2.0 A
B. 0.5 A
C. 2.5 A
D. 1.5 A

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Q7 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion

A bob of heavy mass m is suspended by a light string of length l. The bob is given a horizontal velocity v0 as shown in figure. If the string gets slack at some point P making an angle  from the horizontal, the ratio of the speed v of the bob at point P to its initial speed v0 is:

A. 1 / 2sinθ
B. 1 / sqrt(2 + 3sinθ)
C. cosθ / sqrt(2 + 3sinθ)
D. sinθ / sqrt(2 + 3sinθ)

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Q8 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a _______gate.

A. AND
B. NAND
C. OR
D. NOR

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Q9 PHYSICS Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves

The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by Ez = 60 cos (5x + 1.5 × 10^9 t) V/m. Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field):

A. By = 2 × 10^–7 cos (5x + 1.5 × 10^9 t)T
B. Bx = 2 × 10^–7 cos (5x + 1.5 × 10^9 t)T
C. Bz = 60 cos (5x + 1.5 × 10^9 t)T
D. By = 60 sin (5x + 1.5 × 10^9 t)T

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Q10 PHYSICS Unit 4: Work Energy and Power

A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take g = 9.8 m/s^2)

A. 21 Ns
B. 7 Ns
D. 84 Ns

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Q12 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be

A. 1:4
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 4:1

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Q13 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (p) and magnification (m) for each lens will be, respectively–

A. 4p and 4m
B. p/4 and 4m
C. 4p and m/4
D. p/4 and m/4

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Q15 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

In some appropriate units, time (t) and position (x) relation of a moving particle is given by t = x^2 + x. The acceleration of the particle is

A. -3/2(x+2)^-3
B. -3/2(2x+1)^-3
C. 3/2(x+1)^-3
D. 2/21+x

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Q16 PHYSICS Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 20 Ω, a capacitor of reactance 25 Ω and an inductor of reactance 45 Ω are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively:

A. 7.8 A and 30°
B. 7.8 A and 45°
C. 15.6 A and 30°
D. 15.6 A and 45°

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Q17 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion

The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.

A. 100 days
B. 105 days
C. 115 days
D. 108 days

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field B states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is n(h/e) where n is an integer, h is Planck's constant and e is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be (m is the mass of the electron)

A. he/m pi
B. he/2m pi
C. heB/m pi
D. heB/2m pi

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Q18 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field B states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is n(h/e) where n is an integer, h is Planck's constant and e is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be (m is the mass of the electron)

A. he/mπ
B. he/2mπ
C. heB/mπ
D. heB/2mπ

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Q19 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity 2K while that in the middle has thermal conductivity K. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature 3T and the right end at T. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is T1 and that at the right junction is T2. The ratio T1/T2 is:

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A. 3/2
B. 4/3
C. 5/3
D. 5/4

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Q20 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by d. Two slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 with thickness d/3 and 2d/3 respectively are inserted. The capacitance becomes two times larger than the air-filled case. If K1 = 1.25 K2, what is the value of K1?

A. 2.66
B. 2.33
C. 1.60
D. 1.33

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Q21 PHYSICS Unit 2: Kinematics

Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min. A girl driving at 60 km/h from X to Y notices a bus passing her every 30 minutes in her direction and every 10 minutes in the opposite. Find T and bus speed v.

A. 9 min, 40 km/h
B. 25 min, 100 km/h
C. 10 min, 90 km/h
D. 15 min, 120 km/h

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Q22 PHYSICS Unit 3: Laws of Motion

A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 60° with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (g = 10 m/s²):

A. 100 N
B. 100√3 N
C. 200 N
D. 200√3 N

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Q25 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

Consider a Vernier calliper where 10 V.S.D. = 9 M.S.D. The least count of M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero error is at x = 0.1 cm. If the main scale reading is 5 cm and the coinciding vernier division is 8, the corrected diameter is:

A. 5.18 cm
B. 5.08 cm
C. 4.98 cm
D. 5.00 cm

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Q26 PHYSICS Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

A parallel plate capacitor is being charged such that the surface charge density is increasing at a constant rate. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:

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A. zero at all places
B. constant between the plates and zero outside
C. non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting peripheries of the plates.
D. zero between the plates and non-zero outside.

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Q27 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

An unpolarized light beam in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then-

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A. reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 60°
B. reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 30°.
C. both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and refraction close to 60° and 30°, respectively.
D. transmitted light is completely polarized with angle of refraction close to 30°

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Q28 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B is best given as:

A. 3/5 F
B. 2/3 F
C. 3/8 F
D. 3/4 F

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Q29 PHYSICS Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases

A container has two chambers of volumes V1 = 2 litres and V2 = 3 litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains n1 = 5 and n2 = 4 moles of ideal gas at pressures p1 = 1 atm and p2 = 2 atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of:

A. 1.3 atm
B. 1.6 atm
C. 1.4 atm
D. 1.8 atm

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Q31 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?

A. 88 earth days
B. 225 earth days
C. 172 earth days
D. 124 earth days

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Q32 PHYSICS Unit 6: Gravitation

A body weight 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:

A. 16 N
B. 27 N
C. 32 N
D. 36 N

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Q33 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is:

A. R/64
B. R/32
C. R/16
D. R/8

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Q34 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)

A. 0.067 nm
B. 0.67 nm
C. 1.67 nm
D. 2.67 nm

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Q35 PHYSICS Unit 11: Electrostatics

An electric dipole with dipole moment 5 × 10–6 Cm is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude 4 × 105 N/C. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of 60° with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:

A. 0.8 J
B. 1.0 J
C. 1.2 J
D. 1.5 J

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Q36 PHYSICS Unit 12: Current Electricity

A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is:

A. 1.5 A
B. 2.0 A
C. 2.5 A
D. 3.0 A

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Q37 PHYSICS Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

A photon and an electron (mass m) have the same energy E. The ratio (λphoton / λelectron) of their de Broglie wavelengths is (c is the speed of light)

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A. c / sqrt(2Em)
B. sqrt(2c mE)
C. sqrt(2m / c) E
D. 1 / sqrt(2Em) c

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Q39 PHYSICS Unit 5: Rotational Motion

A sphere of radius R is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius 2R as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is:

A. 7/8
B. 7/40
C. 7/57
D. 7/64

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Q40 PHYSICS Unit 19: Electronic Devices

A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (D1) and (D2) is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage Vin = 220sin(100πt) volt, then at t = 15 m sec

A. D1 is forward biased, D2 is reverse biased
B. D1 is reverse biased, D2 is forward biased
C. D1 and D2 both are forward biased
D. D1 and D2 both are reverse biased

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Q41 PHYSICS Unit 8: Thermodynamics

Two gases A and B are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius rA and rB, respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant pressure, the pistons of gas A and B are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm, respectively. If the change in their internal energy is the same, then the ratio rA/ rB is equal to

A. 4/3
B. 3/4
C. 2/3
D. 3/2

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Q42 PHYSICS Unit 1: Physics and Measurement

A physical quantity P is related to four observations a, b, c and d as follows: P = a^3 * b^2 / (c * d). The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity P is

A. 10%
B. 2%
C. 13%
D. 15%

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Q43 PHYSICS Unit 16: Optics

The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polarization at 22.5° from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is (I0 is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):

A. I0 / 2
B. I0 / 4
C. I0 / 8
D. I0 / 16

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Q44 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants k1 and k2 respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio (AQ/AP) of the amplitude AQ of mass Q to the amplitude AP of mass P is:

A. sqrt(k2/k1)
B. sqrt(k1/k2)
C. k2/k1
D. k1/k2

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Q45 PHYSICS Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves

A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:

A. f/2
B. f
C. 3f/2
D. 2f

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Q46 PHYSICS Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei

The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes n = 2 → n = 3 and n = 4 → n = 6 transitions, respectively, is

A. 1/36
B. 1/16
C. 1/9
D. 1/4

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Q50 CHEMISTRY Unit 2: Atomic Structure

Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He+ and Li2+ are [Given RH = 2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J, a₀ = 52.9 pm]

A. En(Li²⁺) = –19.62 × 10⁻¹⁸ J; rn(Li²⁺) = 17.6 pm; En(He⁺) = –8.72 × 10⁻¹⁸ J; rn(He⁺) = 26.4 pm
B. En(Li²⁺) = –8.72 × 10⁻¹⁸ J; rn(Li²⁺) = 26.4 pm; En(He⁺) = –19.62 × 10⁻¹⁸ J; rn(He⁺) = 17.6 pm
C. En(Li²⁺) = –19.62 × 10⁻¹⁶ J; rn(Li²⁺) = 17.6 pm; En(He⁺) = –8.72 × 10⁻¹⁶ J; rn(He⁺) = 26.4 pm
D. En(Li²⁺) = –8.72 × 10⁻¹⁶ J; rn(Li²⁺) = 17.6 pm; En(He⁺) = –19.62 × 10⁻¹⁶ J; rn(He⁺) = 17.6 pm

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Q51 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Which of the following are paramagnetic? A. [NiCl4]²⁻ B. Ni(CO)₄ C. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ D. [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ E. Ni(PPh₃)₄

A. A and C only
B. B and E only
C. A and D only
D. A, D and E only

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Q52 CHEMISTRY Unit 10: p-Block Elements

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine. Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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Q53 CHEMISTRY Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements? A. [Ne]3s¹ B. [Ar]3d³4s² C. [Kr]4d¹⁰5s²5p⁵ D. [Ar]3d¹⁰4s¹ E. [Rn]5f⁰6d²7s²

A. B and E only
B. A and C only
C. D and E only
D. A, C and D only

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Q54 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?

A. Law of conservation of mass
B. Law of constant proportion
C. Law of multiple proportion
D. Law of gaseous volume

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Q55 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Consider the following compounds: KO₂, H₂O₂ and H₂SO₄. The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,

A. +1, –1, and +6
B. +2, –2, and +6
C. +1, –2, and +4
D. +4, –4, and +6

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Q56 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

If the half-life (t₁/₂) for a first order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is closest to:

A. 2 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

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Q57 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is: A. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ B. [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ C. [Cu(H₂O)₄]²⁺ D. [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺

A. B < D < A < C
B. B < A < D < C
C. C < D < A < B
D. C < A < D < B

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Q58 CHEMISTRY Unit 15: Hydrocarbons

Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?

A. Pent-1-ene
B. 2-Methylhex-2-ene
C. 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane
D. 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane

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Q59 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values Ka1, Ka2 and Ka3, respectively, while K is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true? A. log K = log Ka1 + log Ka2 + log Ka3 B. H₃PO₄ is stronger acid than H₂PO₄⁻ and HPO₄²⁻ C. Ka1 > Ka2 > Ka3 D. Ka1 * Ka2 / Ka3 = K

A. A and B only
B. A and C only
C. B, C and D only
D. A, B and C only

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Q61 CHEMISTRY Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

If the molar conductivity (Λm) of a 0.050 mol L⁻¹ solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm² mol⁻¹, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be [Assume Λ°+ = 349.6 S cm² mol⁻¹ and Λ°– = 50.4 S cm² mol⁻¹]

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A. 0.115
B. 0.125
C. 0.225
D. 0.215

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Q62 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Given below are two statements: Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable. Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.

A. Both statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is true but Statement II is true

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Q62 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Given below are two statements: Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable. Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Both statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is true but Statement II is true

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Q63 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?

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A. [Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃]
B. [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl
C. [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
D. [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂

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Q64 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Match the List -I with List-II. List-I: (A) XeO₃, (B) XeF₂, (C) XeOF₄, (D) XeF₆. List-II: (I) sp³d; linear, (II) sp³; pyramidal, (III) sp³d³; distorted octahedral, (IV) sp³d²; square pyramidal.

A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

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Q66 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

Match the List-I (Example) with List-II (Type of Solution). List-I: (A) Humidity, (B) Alloys, (C) Amalgams, (D) Smoke. List-II: (I) Solid in solid, (II) Liquid in gas, (III) Solid in gas, (IV) Liquid in solid.

A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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Q67 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is:

A. N-methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine > N-ethylethanamine
B. N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > benzenamine > N-methylaniline
C. N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > benzenamine
D. benzenamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > N-ethylethanamine

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Q68 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Among the following, choose the ones with equal number of atoms. A. 212 g of Na₂CO₃, B. 248 g of Na₂O, C. 240 g of NaOH, D. 12 g of H₂, E. 220 g of CO₂

A. A, B, and C only
B. A, B, and D only
C. B, C, and D only
D. B, D, and E only

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Q69 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Match the List-I (Name of Vitamin) with List-II (Deficiency disease). List-I: (A) Vitamin B₁₂, (B) Vitamin D, (C) Vitamin B₂, (D) Vitamin B₆. List-II: (I) Cheilosis, (II) Convulsions, (III) Rickets, (IV) Pernicious anaemia.

A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
B. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
C. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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Q70 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is:

A. (CH₃)₃CCOOH > (CH₃)₂CHCOOH > CH₃COOH > HCOOH
B. CH₃COOH > (CH₃)₂CHCOOH > (CH₃)₃CCOOH > HCOOH
C. HCOOH > CH₃COOH > (CH₃)₂CHCOOH > (CH₃)₃CCOOH
D. HCOOH > (CH₃)₃CCOOH > (CH₃)₂CHCOOH > CH₃COOH

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Q71 CHEMISTRY Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism. Statement II: The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr²⁺ ion (Z=24) is the same as that of a Nd³⁺ ion (Z=60).

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds

Match the List-I (Mixture) with List-II (Method of Separation). List-I: (A) CHCl₃ + C₆H₅NH₂, (B) Crude oil, (C) Glycerol from spent-lye, (D) Aniline-water.

A. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q72 CHEMISTRY Unit 13: Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds

Match the List-I with List-II. List-I (Mixture): A. CHCl3 + C6H5NH2, B. Crude oil in petroleum industry, C. Glycerol from spent-lye, D. Aniline-water List-II (Method of Separation): I. Distillation under reduced pressure, II. Steam distillation, III. Fractional distillation, IV. Simple distillation

A. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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Q73 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

For the reaction A(g) ⇌ 2B(g), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K. [Given: R = 0.0831 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹]. KP for the reaction at 1000 K is

A. 83.1
B. 2.077×10^5
C. 0.033
D. 0.021

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Q74 CHEMISTRY Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273-278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state. Statement II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Q79 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

A. 0.01 M Urea
B. 0.01 M KNO3
C. 0.01 M Na2SO4
D. 0.015 M C6H12O6

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Q80 CHEMISTRY Unit 12: Coordination Compounds

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Haber process, B. Wacker oxidation, C. Wilkinson catalyst, D. Ziegler catalyst List-II: I. Fe catalyst, II. PdCl2, III. [(PPh3)3RhCl], IV. TiCl4 with Al(CH3)3

A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

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Q81 CHEMISTRY Unit 5: Solutions

5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?

A. The solution shows positive deviation.
B. The solution shows negative deviation.
C. The solution is ideal.
D. The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.

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Q82 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Sugar ‘X’: A. is found in honey. B. is a keto sugar. C. exists in α and β – anomeric forms. D. is laevorotatory. ‘X’ is:

A. D-Glucose
B. D-Fructose
C. Maltose
D. Sucrose

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Q84 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens

Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): R-I undergoes SN2 reaction faster than R-Cl. Reason (R): Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

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Q84 CHEMISTRY Unit 16: Organic Compounds Containing Halogens

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): RI undergoes SN2 reaction faster than RCl. Reason (R): Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

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Q85 CHEMISTRY Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics

The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol of Ba2+ is: [Given: standard heat of formation of SO4 2- ion (aq)= –216 kcal/mol, standard heat of crystallization of BaSO4(s) = –4.5 kcal/mol, standard heat of formation of BaSO4(s) = –349 kcal/mol]

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A. -128.5
B. -133.0
C. +133.0
D. +220.5

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Q86 CHEMISTRY Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula C4H8O is:

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A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 11

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Q87 CHEMISTRY Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned: A. H2O > NH3 > CHCl3 - dipole moment B. XeF4 > XeO3 > XeF2 – number of lone pairs on central atom C. O–H > C –H > N–O – bond length D. N2 > O2 > H2 – bond enthalpy Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A, D only
B. B, D only
C. A, C only
D. B, C only

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Q88 CHEMISTRY Unit 6: Equilibrium

Higher yield of NO in N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) can be obtained at [ΔH of the reaction = + 180.7 kJ mol–1] A. higher temperature B. lower temperature C. higher concentration of N2 D. higher concentration of O2 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A, D only
B. B, C only
C. B, C, D only
D. A, C, D only

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Q89 CHEMISTRY Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics

If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s–1, how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L–1 concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L–1? (Given: log 2 = 0.301)

A. 69.3 s
B. 23.1 s
C. 210 s
D. 21.0 s

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Q90 CHEMISTRY Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to “Lassaigne’s test”?

A. Na + C + N -> NaCN
B. 2Na + S -> Na2S
C. Na + X -> NaX
D. 2CuO + C -> 2Cu + CO2

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Q91 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

A. Cytochrome bc1
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Cytochrome c oxidase
D. NADH dehydrogenase

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Q92 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

A. N2
B. 2^n
C. 2n + 1
D. 2N2

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Q93 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method? A. High fatality risk to mother B. Expensive instruments and reagents C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors D. Less adoption of orphans E. Not available in India F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. B, D, F only.
B. A, C, D, F only
C. A, B, C, D only
D. A, B, C, E, F only

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Q94 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Vena cava

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Q95 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

A. Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
B. Physiological approach to study and understand, living organisms.
C. Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
D. Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.

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Q96 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q97 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

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A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Predation
D. Amensalism

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Q98 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

From the statements given below choose the correct option: A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S. D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S. E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S

A. A, B, C are true
B. A, B, D are true
C. A, B, E are true
D. B, D, E are true

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Q99 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

A. National Park
B. Wildlife Sanctuary
C. Zoos and botanical gardens
D. Protected areas.

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Q100 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q101 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Emphysema, B. Angina Pectoris, C. Glomerulo-nephritis, D. Tetany List-II: I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid, II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface, III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle, IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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Q102 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are two statement: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

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Q103 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Which of the following is an example of non—distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

A. Whisky
B. Brandy
C. Beer
D. Rum

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Q104 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary. Statement II: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q105 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

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A. Curd production
B. Ethanol production
C. Liver disease treatment
D. Removing clots from blood vessels

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Q106 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

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A. Chromosome X
B. Chromosome Y
C. Chromosome 1
D. Chromosome 10

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Q107 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

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A. First and Second digit of fore limb
B. First digit of hind limb
C. Second digit of fore limb
D. First digit of the fore limb

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Q108 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

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A. Ethylene
B. Abscisic acid
C. Gibberellin
D. Cytokinin

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Q109 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?

A. Acoelomate
B. Pseudocoelomate
C. Schizocoelomate
D. Spongocoelomate

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Q110 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Match List-I with List-II.

A. A. Head I. Enzymes; B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility; C. Acrosome III. Energy; D. Tail IV. Genetic material
B. A. Head IV. Genetic material; B. Middle piece III. Energy; C. Acrosome I. Enzymes; D. Tail II. Sperm motility
C. A. Head III. Energy; B. Middle piece IV. Genetic material; C. Acrosome II. Sperm motility; D. Tail I. Enzymes
D. A. Head III. Energy; B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility; C. Acrosome I. Enzymes; D. Tail IV. Genetic material

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Q111 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.

A. B, A, D, E, C
B. B, A, E, C, D
C. D, E, C, A, B
D. E, D, C, B, A

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Q112 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by: A. Nodal tissue B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Adrenal cortical hormones

A. A, B and C Only.
B. A, B, C and D
C. A, C and D Only
D. A, B and D Only

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Q113 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria C. Anabaena D. Volvox E. Nostoc

A. A only
B. D only
C. B only
D. E only

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Q114 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q115 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

A. Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
B. Blue color colonies will be selected.
C. White color colonies will be selected.
D. Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

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Q116 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

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A. Bacterium
B. Yeast
C. Virus
D. Phage

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Q117 CHEMISTRY Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction: S – G + S# → S + S# – G

A. Hydrolase
B. Lyase
C. Transferase
D. Ligase

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Q117 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction: S – G + S# → S + S# – G. Where, G → a group other than hydrogen, S → a substrate, S# → another substrate.

A. Hydrolase
B. Lyase
C. Transferase
D. Ligase

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Q118 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

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A. Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
B. Vascular bundles are scattered.
C. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
D. Phloem parenchyma is absent.

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Q119 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water.

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A. B, E, A, D, C
B. A, B, C, D, E
C. B, A, D, E, C
D. C, D, A, B, E

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Q120 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Which are correct: A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs. B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients’ immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers. E. In the case of leukaemia blood cells counts are decreased.

A. B and D only
B. D and E only
C. C and D only
D. A and C only

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Q121 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Centromere, B. Cilium, C. Cristae, D. Cell membrane. List-II: I. Mitochondrion, II. Cell division, III. Cell movement, IV. Phospholipid Bilayer

A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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Q122 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Chlorophyll a, B. Chlorophyll b, C. Xanthophylls, D. Carotenoids. List-II: I. Yellow-green, II. Yellow, III. Blue-green, IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
C. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
D. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

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Q123 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Find the correct statements: A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks. B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks. C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation. D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month. E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair usually observed in the fifth month.

A. A and E Only
B. B and C Only
C. B, C, D and E Only
D. A, C, D and E Only

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Q124 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:

A. Coleoptile
B. Coleorhiza
C. Integument
D. Aleurone layer

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Q127 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

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Q128 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

A specialized membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:

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A. Mesosome
B. Chromatophores
C. Cristae
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum

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Q129 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell? A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing. B. Removal of introns and joining of exons. C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA. D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA. E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.

A. A, B, C only
B. B, C, D only
C. B, C, E only
D. C, D, E only

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Q130 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

A. Mendelian inheritance pattern
B. Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
C. Autosomal dominant pattern
D. X-linked recessive inheritance pattern

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Q131 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?

A. RuBisCo
B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Succinate dehydrogenase
D. Catalase

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Q132 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization. A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin. B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization. C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids. D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization. E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.

A. A, C, E, B, D
B. C, E, A, D, B
C. A, C, E, D, B
D. C, E, A, B, D

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Q133 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

A. S. R. Kashyap
B. Ramdeo Misra
C. Ram Udar
D. Birbal Sahni

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Q134 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase I. Streptococcus Pneumoniae B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed and dark-stained C. Frederick Griffith III. Loosely packed and light-stained D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation

A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q135 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Neoplastic characteristics of cells refers to: A. A mass of proliferating cell B. Rapid growth of cells C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue D. Those confined to original location

A. A, B only
B. A, B, C only
C. A, B, D only
D. B, C, D only

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Q136 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q137 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

Match List I with List II. List I List II A. Adenosine I. Nitrogen base B. Adenylic acid II. Nucleotide C. Adenine III. Nucleoside D. Alanine IV. Amino acid

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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Q137 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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Q138 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Consider the following: A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females. C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte. D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.

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A. A and B are true
B. A and C are true
C. B and D are true
D. B and C are true

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Q139 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

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A. Free living
B. Endoparasite
C. Symbiotic
D. Ectoparasite

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Q140 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

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Q141 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

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Q142 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate. Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord, during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

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Q143 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

A. Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
B. The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
C. Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
D. Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.

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Q144 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

A. Complementary dsRNA
B. Inhibitory ssRNA
C. Complementary tRNA
D. Non-complementary ssRNA

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Q145 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

A. Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
B. Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
C. Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
D. Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7

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Q146 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

Histones are enriched with -

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A. Lysine & Arginine
B. Leucine & Lysine
C. Phenylalanine & Leucine
D. Phenylalanine & Arginine

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Q147 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

The first menstruation is called:

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A. Menopause
B. Menarche
C. Diapause
D. Ovulation

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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Q148 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Match List - I with List - II. List - I List - II A. Heart I. Erythropoietin B. Kidney II. Aldosterone C. Gastro-intestinal III. Atrial natriuretic factor tracts IV. Secretin Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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Q149 CHEMISTRY Unit 19: Biomolecules

The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

A. Cofactor
B. Coenzyme
C. Apoenzyme
D. Prosthetic group

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Q149 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

A. Cofactor
B. Coenzyme
C. Apoenzyme
D. Prosthetic group

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Q150 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

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A. gm–2
B. KCal m–2
C. KCal m–3
D. (KCal m–2)yr–1

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Q151 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

A. Analogy, convergent
B. Homology, divergent
C. Homology, convergent
D. Analogy, divergent

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Q153 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

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Q154 BIOLOGY Unit 6: Reproduction

How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

A. 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
B. 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
C. 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
D. No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis

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Q155 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

A. Petunia
B. Datura
C. Pea
D. Chilli

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Q156 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like: A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. lymph nodes E. Peyer's patches. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. B, C, D only
B. A, B, C only
C. E, A, B only
D. C, D, E only

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Q157 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer:

A. Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q158 BIOLOGY Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function

What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

A. To separate the chromosomes
B. To synthesize new DNA
C. To repair damaged DNA
D. To regulate cell growth

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Q159 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

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A. Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
B. Seeds are naked.
C. Seeds are absent.
D. Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.

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Q160 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones: A. It causes pupilary constriction B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone C. It causes piloerection D. It increases/strength of heart contraction. Choose the correct answer:

↻ Repeated question — also appeared in 2025 (1 set)

A. C and D Only
B. B, C and D Only
C. A, C and D Only
D. D Only

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Q161 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

A. Human body will elicit strong immune response
B. It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
C. Because of structural variation
D. Its bioavailability will be increased

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Q161 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

A. Human body will elicit strong immune response
B. It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
C. Because of structural variation
D. Its bioavailability will be increased

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Q162 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Pteridophyte, B. Bryophyte, C. Angiosperm, D. Gymnosperm. List-II: I. Salvia, II. Ginkgo, III. Polytrichum, IV. Salvinia. Choose the option with all correct matches.

A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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Q163 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

A. George Gamow
B. Francis Crick
C. Jacque Monod
D. Franklin Stahl

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Q164 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. The Evil Quartet, B. Ex situ conservation, C. Lantana camara, D. Dodo. List-II: I. Cryopreservation, II. Alien species invasion, III. Causes of biodiversity losses, IV. Extinction. Choose the option with all correct matches.

A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q165 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

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Q166 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is: A. Respiration and Locomotion B. Excretion and Locomotion C. Capture and transport of food D. Digestion and Respiration E. Digestion and Excretion. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A and B Only
B. A and C Only
C. B and C Only
D. B, D and E Only

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Q167 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

A. Acquired Immunity
B. Innate Immunity
C. Cell-mediated Immunity
D. Humoral Immunity

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Q168 BIOLOGY Unit 1: Diversity in Living World

In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

A. Sexual reproduction
B. Asexual reproduction
C. Nutrient absorption
D. Gaseous exchange

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Q169 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :

A. Liver and intestine
B. Liver and kidney
C. Kidney and intestine
D. Kidney and lower part of body

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Q170 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Q171 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

A. It is active only in the dark.
B. It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
C. It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
D. It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

A. C and D only
B. A and B only
C. D and E only
D. B and C only

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Q172 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase

A. (1) C and D only
B. (2) A and B only
C. (3) D and E only
D. (4) B and C only

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Q173 BIOLOGY Unit 4: Plant Physiology

Read the following statements on plant growth and development. A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth. C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation. D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds. Choose the option with all correct statements.

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A. A, B, C only
B. A, C, E only
C. A, D, E only
D. B, D, E only

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Q174 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

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A. α (alpha)
B. σ (sigma)
C. ρ (rho)
D. γ (gamma)

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Q175 BIOLOGY Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following:

A. (1) The statement is true for water but false for land
B. (2) The statement is true for both the environment
C. (3) The statement is false for water but true for land
D. (4) The statement is false for both the environment

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Q176 BIOLOGY Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution

Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

A. (1) They are monozygotic twins.
B. (2) They are fraternal twins.
C. (3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
D. (4) They have 75% identical genetic content.

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Q177 BIOLOGY Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare

Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products? A. Aspergillus niger B. Lactobacillus C. Trichoderma polysporum D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae E. Propionibacterium sharmanii

A. (1) A and B only
B. (2) A and C only
C. (3) C and D only
D. (4) C and E only

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Q178 BIOLOGY Unit 5: Human Physiology

A. (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
B. (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
C. (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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Q179 BIOLOGY Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II: The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.

A. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Q180 BIOLOGY Unit 10: Ecology and Environment

Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

A. (1) dN/dt = rN((K-N)/K)
B. (2) dN/dt = rN((K-N)/K)
C. (3) dN/dt = rN((N-K)/N)
D. (4) dN/dt = r(K-N)/K

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