Q1
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and f number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities Cp/Cv of the gas is 8/7, then the value of f is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. 3
- B. 2
- C. 1
- D. 4
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Q2
PHYSICS
Unit 20: Experimental Skills
One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to 1 mm and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is 10. When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in such a way that 4th Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures the length of a wire to be 1 cm, the actual length of the wire is:
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2026 (1 set)
- A. 0.96 cm
- B. 1.00 cm
- C. 1.04 cm
- D. 0.60 cm
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Q4
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is m kg and the spring constant is k Nm^-1. At a given instant, the extension of the spring is x meter and the speed of the particle is v ms^-1. On the x-v plane, if the graph of v as a function of x is a circle, then the correct option is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (4 sets)
- A. k=m
- B. k=m^2
- C. k=sqrt(m)
- D. k=1/m
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Q5
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a dielectric constant epsilon_r = 9, has the electric field, E_x = E_0 sin(kz - 2pi * 10^6 t) Vm^-1 where E_0 is the amplitude and k is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (4 sets)
- A. The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 300 m
- B. The magnetic field is given by the relation B_y = B_0/v * sin(kz - 2pi * 10^6 t) where v is the speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium
- C. The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along +z
- D. The speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 10^8 ms^-1
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Q6
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point A (theta = pi/2) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point B (theta = -pi/2). During this time, which of the following figures schematically represent the magnitude of the total linear momentum P of the system, as a function of theta?
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2026 (1 set)
- A. Graph showing decrease to zero at origin then increase
- B. Semicircle graph
- C. Straight line graph
- D. Horizontal line graph
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Q7
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered alpha-particles N(theta) is plotted as a function of scattering angle theta. Which of the following options represents the correct plot?
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2026 (1 set)
- A. Graph 1
- B. Graph 2
- C. Graph 3
- D. Graph 4
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Q12
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An ac voltage V = 220 sin(2 x 10^3 t) Volt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is : (Given : L= 10 mH, C=25µF, R= 100 Ω)
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. 5.5 A
- B. 11.0 A
- C. 22.0 A
- D. 2.2 A
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Q13
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius R and total charge + Q. A point charge -q (q<<Q) with mass m is released from rest at a distance of 3R from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is :
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. √(2Qq / 3πε₀mR)
- B. √(Qq / 3πε₀mR)
- C. √(Qq / 4πε₀mR)
- D. √(3Qq / 4πε₀mR)
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Q15
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
Two planets P1 and P2 with equal mass have radii R1 and R2, respectively, where R2 = R1/2. The escape speeds of P1 and P2 are v1 and v2, respectively. Then v2/v1 is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. 1
- B. √2
- C. 2
- D. 1/√2
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Q22
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity (v) with the ratio of density of spherical ball (σ) to density of the liquid (ρ), is best represented by:
- A. (1)
- B. (2)
- C. (3)
- D. (4)
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Q23
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
A ray of light with wavelength λ is incident on three different photo-electric cells namely 1, 2 and 3. The threshold wavelength of these photo-electric cells are λ1, λ2, and λ3, respectively and the magnitude of stopping potentials of these cells are V1, V2 and V3, respectively. The relation between λ and threshold wavelengths are λ1 < λ, λ2 > λ and λ3 >> λ. The correct option is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. V1 = 0, V2 > V3
- B. V1 > V2, V3 = 0
- C. V1 < V2, V3 = 0
- D. V1 = 0, V2 < V3
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Q24
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A current I0 flows through a metallic circular loop of radius r as shown in the figure. Resistance of the segment ABC is half that of ADC. Magnitude of magnetic field at the center O of the loop is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. μ0I0 / 4r
- B. μ0I0 / 2r
- C. μ0I0 / 2πr
- D. μ0I0 / 12r
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Q25
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A particle of mass M moves along a horizontal x axis from x = 0 to x = L. The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as a function of x as μk(x) = μ0 - ax, where μ0, a are constants, so that μk(L) = 0. The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is nμ0MgL. The value of n is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. 1
- B. 1/3
- C. 1/2
- D. 3
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Q26
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius R is proportional to:
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. R^3/2
- B. R^2
- C. R^3
- D. R^1/2
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Q27
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A solid sphere A of radius R and mass M is attached to a smaller solid sphere B of radius r < R and mass m < M. The moment of inertia of the system about a vertical axis through the center of A is IA and through the center of B is IB. The difference IA - IB is:
- A. (m - M)(R + r)^2
- B. (m - M)(R - r)^2
- D. (M - m)(R + r)^2
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Q28
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
The lens combination consists of two lenses, L1 and L2, of the focal lengths +10 cm and -10 cm, respectively. The position of the image formed is:
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. 60 cm to the left of the concave lens
- B. 30 cm to the right of the concave lens
- C. 60 cm to the right of the concave lens
- D. 20 cm to the left of the concave lens
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Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of -3 V is reverse biased with a negative input voltage Vi = -5 V. The magnitude of voltage difference between points B and A is:
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. 2 V
- B. 1 V
- C. 0 V
- D. 3 V
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Q30
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Three identical capacitors P, Q and S, each of the capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V, as shown in the figure. If the energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are UP and UT, respectively, then the ratio UP/UT is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. 1/3
- B. 1/2
- C. 1/6
- D. 2/3
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Q31
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the x-y plane. There is a constant magnetic field in the z direction. The area of the loop varies with time t, as A= A0(1 + sin t). The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power P dissipated in the loop as a function of time is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. (1)
- B. (2)
- C. (3)
- D. (4)
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Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient, +α, the other a negative, -α. At initial temperature, resistance is R0. As temperature is increased, the variation of current IA and IB is:
- A. IA decreases while IB increases
- B. IA increases while IB decreases
- C. both IA and IB remain constant
- D. IA remains constant while IB increases
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Q32
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, +α, while the other one has a negative temperature of coefficient, -α, as shown in the figure. The current through these circuits are denoted by IA and IB. At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is R0. As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. IA decreases while IB increases
- B. IA increases while IB decreases
- C. both IA and IB remain constant
- D. IA remains constant while IB increases
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Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
Bob B of mass m at rest is hanging vertically via a string of length 10 m. Point mass A of mass m travelling horizontally with speed 10 ms-1 hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises h meter after the collision. Taking g= 10 ms-2, the value of h is:
- A. 7
- B. 5
- C. 2.5
- D. 8
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Q33
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
Bob B of mass m at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length 10 m, as shown in the figure. Point mass A of mass m travelling horizontally with speed 10 ms-1 hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises h meter after the collision. Taking the acceleration due to gravity g= 10 ms-2 and neglecting the size of the bob, the value of h is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. 7
- B. 5
- C. 2.5
- D. 8
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Q43
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (γ = 5/3) decreases from 60 K to 50 K. The work done by the gas in the process is: (Take the universal gas constant as R = 8.3 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. 83 J
- B. 124.5 J
- C. 166 J
- D. 41.5 J
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Q44
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between P and Q is 15 Nm⁻². The area of cross-section at P and Q are 40 cm² and 20 cm², respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in cm³s⁻¹, is: (Take density of water = 1000 kg m⁻³)
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. 200
- B. 300
- C. 400
- D. 100
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Q45
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre O. Its angular momentum is LA and LB computed about points A and B, respectively, with OB = 2 * OA. The value of LA/LB is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. 1/2
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 1/4
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Q46
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Match the species in List I with their geometry in List II: List I: A. PCl5, B. BrF5, C. BF4⁻, D. [Ni(CN)4]²⁻. List II: I. Tetrahedral, II. Square Planar, III. Trigonal bipyramidal, IV. Square pyramidal.
- A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
- B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
- C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
- D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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Q47
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is
- A. threonine
- B. methionine
- C. serine
- D. leucine
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Q49
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The standard electrode potential (E°) for the half-cell reaction Fe³⁺ + e⁻ ➔ Fe²⁺ at 298 K is (Given: E°(Fe³⁺/Fe) = -0.04 V and E°(Fe²⁺/Fe) = -0.44 V at 298 K)
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- A. +0.76 V
- B. -0.48 V
- C. +0.92 V
- D. +0.40 V
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Q51
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
For a salt XY, which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of Am versus √c has a slope of -90.0 S cm² mol⁻³/² L¹/². At 0.01 M concentration of XY, the value of Am is 145.0 S cm² mol⁻¹. The limiting molar conductivity of Y⁻ ion (λ°y⁻, in S cm² mol⁻¹) at 298 K will be (Given: λ°x⁺ = 74.0 S cm² mol⁻¹)
- A. 100.0
- B. 90.0
- C. 76.0
- D. 80.0
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Q52
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F. Reason R: The loss of an electron from O leads to stable half-filled p orbital.
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- B. A is correct but R is not correct.
- C. A is not correct but R is correct.
- D. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
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Q53
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is
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- A. CO > H2O > NH3 > Cl⁻
- B. Cl⁻ > H2O > NH3 > CO
- C. Cl⁻ > NH3 > H2O > CO
- D. CO > NH3 > H2O > Cl⁻
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Q54
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: [Fe(ox)3]3- is chiral.
Statement-II: trans-[Cr(H2O)2(ox)2]- is chiral.
(Given: oxH2 = HOOC-COOH)
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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2026 (1 set)
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
- B. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- C. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
- D. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
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Q56
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below. If the energy of activation is 6.64 kJ mol⁻¹ and R = 8.3 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹, the temperature at which the rate constant becomes e² min⁻¹ is
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- A. 150 K
- B. 200 K
- C. 250 K
- D. 125 K
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Q58
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to N ⇌ D. At 60 °C, the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is 666 kJ mol-1. The standard entropy change (ΔS° in kJ K-1 mol-1) of the protein upon denaturation at 60 °C is closest to:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. 2000.0
- B. 333.0
- C. 11.1
- D. 2.0
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Q59
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Consider the following statements about the statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids:
A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult's law throughout the composition range.
B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.
C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.
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- A. B and C only
- B. A only
- C. A and C only
- D. A and B only
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Q60
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Heating NaCl with concentrated H2SO4 and MnO2 results in oxidation of Mn.
Statement-II: Heating NaI with concentrated H2SO4 and MnO2 results in reduction of Mn.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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2026 (1 set)
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
- B. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- C. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
- D. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
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Q61
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with Br2 in CCl4 gives the following product (racemic mixture).
Statement II: cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline KMnO4 gives the following product (meso-butane-2,3-diol).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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Q62
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
The highest occupied molecular orbital for Ne2 is:
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- A. σ2p
- B. π*2p
- C. σ*2p
- D. π2p
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Q64
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The green paramagnetic species formed by heating KMnO4 at 513 K is:
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- A. Mn3O4
- B. MnO
- C. KO2
- D. K2MnO4
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Q65
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
The correct statement is
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- A. Beryllium has three valence orbitals.
- B. Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four.
- C. Aluminium has five valence orbitals.
- D. Boron has a maximum covalency of four.
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Q66
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
The correct statement about peptides and proteins is
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- A. Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active.
- B. In β-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
- C. In α-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw (helix) through intramolecular hydrogen bonds.
- D. Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits.
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Q67
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
2A → B is a zero-order reaction, where k = 1.0 mol L-1 min-1. If the initial concentration of A is 2 M, then the time taken to complete 75% of the reaction will be:
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- A. 0.75 min
- B. 1.0 min
- C. 2.0 min
- D. 1.5 min
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Q68
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Assertion A : Generally, 3d transition metals have high melting points. Reason R : Involvement of 3d-electrons in addition to 4s-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer.
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- B. A is correct but R is not correct.
- C. A is not correct but R is correct.
- D. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
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Q69
CHEMISTRY
Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction (ψ(r)) against distance (r) from the nucleus. The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is
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- A. B
- B. C
- C. D
- D. A
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Q79
CHEMISTRY
Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option: Toluene reacting with (i) CrO2Cl2, CS2 (ii) H3O+ gives product P.
- A. Compound P can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous AlCl3 and CH3COCl.
- B. On treatment with bromine water, compound P gives a white precipitate.
- C. Compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on BaSO4.
- D. On treating compound P with saturated NaHCO3 solution, brisk effervescence is observed.
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Q80
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, ΔmixH = 0 and ΔmixV = 0. Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q.
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
- B. A is correct but R is not correct
- C. A is not correct but R is correct
- D. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
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Q81
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Match the vitamins in List I with their sources in List II: List I (A. Vitamin A, B. Vitamin B12, C. Vitamin E, D. Vitamin K) List II (I. Meat, II. Sunflower oil, III. Green leafy vegetables, IV. Carrots)
- A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
- B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
- C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
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Q82
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. hepta-1,4-diene
- B. hepta-1,5-diene
- C. hepta-1,6-diene
- D. hepta-1,3-diene
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Q84
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from 10 L to 100 L at 300 K. The values of ΔSsystem and ΔSsurroundings are (R is universal gas constant):
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. ΔSsystem = 4.606 R; ΔSsurroundings = -4.606 R
- B. ΔSsystem = 0; ΔSsurroundings = 4.606 R
- C. ΔSsystem = 4.606 R; ΔSsurroundings = 0
- D. ΔSsystem = 0; ΔSsurroundings = 0
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Q85
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is:
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- A. Br > Cl > F > I
- B. Cl > F > Br > I
- C. I > Br > Cl > F
- D. F > Cl > Br > I
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Q86
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at 298 K is: AgBr (5.0×10^-13), Zn(OH)2 (1.0×10^-15), Hg2Cl2 (1.3×10^-18).
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. AgBr > Zn(OH)2 > Hg2Cl2
- B. Hg2Cl2 > AgBr > Zn(OH)2
- C. Zn(OH)2 > AgBr > Hg2Cl2
- D. Hg2Cl2 > Zn(OH)2 > AgBr
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Q88
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of 116 g of n-butane is (Atomic mass: H=1, C=12, O=16):
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. 322 g
- B. 176 g
- C. 362 g
- D. 352 g
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Q89
PHYSICS
Unit 20: Experimental Skills
The numbers 17.0145 and 21.0235 were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are:
- A. 17.015 and 21.023
- B. 17.014 and 21.024
- C. 17.015 and 21.024
- D. 17.014 and 21.023
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Q90
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
In potash alum, the ratio of K+ and SO4^2- ions is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. 2:1
- B. 2:3
- C. 3:2
- D. 1:2
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Q94
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct ?
(a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis
(b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone
(c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone
(d) It does not secrete prolactin
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. (a), (b) and (c) only
- B. (c) and (d) only
- C. (b) and (c) only
- D. (a) and (b) only
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Q96
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
In water, frogs respire using ____
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2026 (1 set)
- A. buccal cavity
- B. lungs
- C. trachea
- D. skin
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Q97
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I (A) Cristae, (B) Cisternae, (C) Thylakoids, (D) Phospholipid
List-II (I) Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast, (II) Infoldings in mitochondria, (III) Cell membrane, (IV) Disc shaped sacs in the Golgi apparatus
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- B. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
- C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
- D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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Q98
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of ____
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. flowers
- B. fruits
- C. sepals
- D. leaves
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Q100
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body.
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. (c), (a), (b), (d)
- B. (b), (c), (d), (a)
- C. (b), (a), (c), (d)
- D. (a), (b), (c), (d)
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Q101
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. 170 cm
- B. 230 cm
- C. 460 cm
- D. 50 cm
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Q102
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia.
Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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Q103
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
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- A. is the major site for the synthesis of lipids
- B. is actively involved in protein synthesis
- C. is a site for the synthesis of carbohydrates
- D. has ribosomes attached to its surface
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Q104
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. Central nervous system is dorsal
- B. Absence of gills
- C. Presence of post anal part (tail)
- D. Presence of notochord
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Q105
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. 309
- B. 103
- C. 412
- D. 206
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Q106
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is ____
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. G1-M-G2-S
- B. G1-S-G2-M
- C. S-M-G2-G1
- D. G1-G2-S-M
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Q107
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. Patella-femur-tibia-tarsal
- B. Femur-patella-tibia-tarsal
- C. Femur-tarsal-patella-tibia
- D. Femur-tibia-patella-tarsal
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Q108
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Cell theory was formulated by
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (4 sets)
- A. Robert Brown
- B. Singer and Nicolson
- C. Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
- D. Schleiden and Schwann
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Q109
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.
Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis.
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- B. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
- C. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
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Q109
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.
Statement II : Meiosis I resembles mitosis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- B. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
- C. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
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Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct?
(a) Do not occur in C3 plants
(b) CO2 is consumed and O2 is generated
(c) Phosphoglycolate is formed
(d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. (c) and (d) only
- B. (b) and (d) only
- C. (a) and (b) only
- D. (a) and (d) only
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Q111
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells ?
(a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits
(b) They can have plasmids
(c) They contain mesosome
(d) They have peroxisomes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. (a) and (c) only
- B. (a), (c) and (d) only
- C. (a), (b) and (c) only
- D. (b) and (c) only
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Q113
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Endomembrane system includes
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
- B. mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
- C. Golgi complex, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
- D. endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuole
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Q115
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. Gibberellin
- B. Indole butyric acid
- C. Ethephon
- D. Abscisic acid
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Q116
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as ____
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. chromoplast
- B. aleuroplast
- C. amyloplast
- D. chloroplast
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Q117
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCo is shown below :
RuBP + O2 -> 3-Phosphoglycerate + X
Identify "X" from the given options :
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. 2-Phosphoglycolate
- B. Oxaloacetate
- C. Malate
- D. Phosphoenolpyruvate
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Q121
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses ____
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- A. cytosol
- B. mucus
- C. aqueous humor
- D. matrix
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Q122
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
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2026 (4 sets)
- A. Blood clot consists of fibrins
- B. Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen
- C. Fibrinogen is produced from fibrin
- D. Blood coagulates in response to an injury
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Q123
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called ____
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- A. sponges
- B. mycorrhiza
- C. chrysophytes
- D. lichens
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Q124
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (4 sets)
- A. Dura mater
- B. Pia mater
- C. Pericardium
- D. Arachnoid
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Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. Kinetin
- B. Abscisic acid
- C. Gibberellin
- D. 2,4-D
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Q126
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose ?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. 3
- B. 1
- C. 18
- D. 6
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Q130
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Sphenopsida class belongs to
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. angiosperms
- B. gymnosperms
- C. pteridophytes
- D. bryophytes
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Q132
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following is not a prokaryote?
- A. Blue green algae
- B. Mycoplasma
- C. Fungi
- D. Bacteria
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Q134
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Genus represents _____
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- A. a population of plants and animals
- B. a group of closely related species
- C. a group of closely related families
- D. an individual plant or animal
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Q135
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Mad cow disease is caused by _____
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- A. viroids
- B. Aspergillus sp.
- C. Mycoplasma sp.
- D. prions
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Q136
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. tricuspid valve
- B. semilunar valve
- C. sino-atrial node
- D. bicuspid valve
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Q137
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut _____
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. due to acidic pH
- B. by proteases
- C. by nucleases
- D. due to alkaline pH
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Q139
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther?
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- A. 6
- B. 8
- C. 12
- D. 2
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Q140
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta?
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progesterone
- C. LH
- D. hCG
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Q140
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progesterone
- C. LH
- D. hCG
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Q141
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Sperm motility is due to _____
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- A. ciliary movement
- B. amoeboid movement
- C. muscular movement
- D. flagellar movement
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Q141
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Sperm motility is due to ____.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. ciliary movement
- B. amoeboid movement
- C. muscular movement
- D. flagellar movement
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Q142
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf. Reason R: Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
- B. A is correct but R is not correct
- C. A is not correct but R is correct
- D. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
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Q143
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ____ step.
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- A. extension
- B. annealing
- C. ligation
- D. denaturation
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Q144
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds?
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- A. Maize
- B. Barley
- C. Pea
- D. Wheat
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Q145
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes?
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. Father: IAi and Mother: IAi
- B. Father: IBi and Mother: IBi
- C. Father: IAIB and Mother: IAi
- D. Father: IAi and Mother: IBi
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Q146
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following is used as a clot buster?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. Penicillin
- B. Cyclosporin A
- C. Statins
- D. Streptokinase
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Q152
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebral column from the head to toe?
- A. Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra
- B. Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum
- C. Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum
- D. Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra
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Q153
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
If the diploid chromosome number of a typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. 36
- B. 54
- C. 72
- D. 18
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Q154
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Sponges exchange O2 with CO2 by
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. moist cuticle
- B. tracheal tubes
- C. gills
- D. simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces
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Q155
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted?
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2026 (1 set)
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Gonorrhoea
- C. Genital warts
- D. Syphilis
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Q156
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. Synergids
- B. Central cells
- C. Polar nucleus
- D. Antipodals
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Q158
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
The covering of ovum at ovulation is
- A. zona radiata
- B. zona pellucida
- C. chorion
- D. endometrium
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Q160
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. Epididymis
- B. Vasa efferentia
- C. Infundibulum
- D. Rete testis
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Q161
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain?
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- A. Predators
- B. Herbivores
- C. Carnivores
- D. Parasites
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Q163
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct?
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2026 (2 sets)
- A. Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator
- B. Genes i, z, y and a share single common promoter
- C. Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon
- D. Gene i is constitutively expressed
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Q164
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium?
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. Reproduces sexually in RBCs
- B. Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut
- C. Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut
- D. Reproduces sexually in liver cells
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Q165
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is ____.
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. 0.02
- B. 0.10
- C. 0.99
- D. 0.01
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Q166
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of ____.
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
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- A. convergent evolution
- B. founder effect
- C. genetic drift
- D. divergent evolution
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Q167
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. IgM
- B. IgA
- C. IgD
- D. IgG
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Q169
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles. Statement II: Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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Q171
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
- B. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
- C. Embryo transfer (ET)
- D. Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
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Q172
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients?
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. Antibiotics
- B. Morphine
- C. Anti-retroviral drugs
- D. Interferon
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Q173
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. Statement II: Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (2 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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Q174
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following is not evidence for evolution?
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2026 (3 sets)
- A. Paleontological evidence from fossil records
- B. Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Heckel
- C. Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs
- D. Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
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Q175
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Reason R: Resources are finite. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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2026 (1 set)
- A. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
- B. A is correct but R is not correct
- C. A is not correct but R is correct
- D. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
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Q176
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents. Statement II: Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (3 sets)
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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