Q1
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
- A. Internal energy
- B. Enthalpy
- C. Activation energy
- D. Entropy
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Q2
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Predict the correct order of repulsion among the following:
- A. lone pair-lone pair > bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-bond pair
- B. bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-bond pair > lone pair-lone pair
- C. lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-lone pair
- D. lone pair-lone pair > lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair
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Q3
CHEMISTRY
Unit 18: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is:
- A. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
- B. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of the aryl group.
- C. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized.
- D. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
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Q4
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces:
- A. Cu(NO3)2 and NO
- B. Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2
- C. Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
- D. Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
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Q5
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
For the following reactions: (a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH → CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O, (b) (CH3)2CHBr + KOH → (CH3)2CHOH + KBr, (c) CH2=CH2 + Br2 → CH2BrCH2Br. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) addition reaction.
- B. (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.
- C. (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
- D. (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.
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Q6
CHEMISTRY
Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
- A. Magnetic quantum number
- B. Azimuthal quantum number
- C. Spin quantum number
- D. Principal quantum number
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Q7
CHEMISTRY
Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
The reaction of an alkoxide with an alkyl halide (e.g., Na+O-R + R'-X → R-O-R' + NaX) can be classified as:
- A. Alcohol formation reaction
- B. Dehydration reaction
- C. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
- D. Williamson ether synthesis reaction
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Q7
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The reaction R–OH + NaH -> R–ONa + H2; R–ONa + Me–I -> R–O–Me + NaI can be classified as:
- A. Alcohol formation reaction
- B. Dehydration reaction
- C. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
- D. Williamson ether synthesis reaction
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Q8
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are:
- A. [Xe]4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f9 6s2
- B. [Xe]4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f8 5d1 6s2
- C. [Xe]4f7 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f9 6s2
- D. [Xe]4f7 6s2, [Xe]4f8 6s2 and [Xe]4f8 5d1 6s2
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Q9
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
At 100ºC the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:
- A. 100ºC
- B. 102ºC
- C. 103ºC
- D. 101ºC
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Q10
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:
- A. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.
- B. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
- C. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
- D. The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain.
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Q11
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?
- A. ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative
- B. ΔG and ΔH are negative but ΔS is positive
- C. ΔG and ΔS are negative but ΔH is positive
- D. ΔG is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive
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Q12
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. (a) XeF6 (b) XeO3 (c) XeOF4 (d) XeF4
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
- D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
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Q13
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is:
- A. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
- B. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.
- C. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism.
- D. a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.
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Q14
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:
- A. β-glycosidic bond
- B. peptide bond
- C. dative bond
- D. α-glycosidic bond
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Q15
CHEMISTRY
Unit 11: d- and f-Block Elements
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code:
Column I Column II
(a) Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge
(b) Froth floatation process (ii) Dressing of Zns
(c) Electrolytic reduction (iii) Extraction of Al
(d) Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au
(v) Purification of Ni
- A. (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
- B. (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
- C. (3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
- D. (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
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Q16
CHEMISTRY
Unit 20: Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Which of the following is an analgesic?
- A. Penicillin
- B. Streptomycin
- C. Chloromycetin
- D. Novalgin
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Q17
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
- A. Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
- B. Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid
- C. Both are triprotic acids
- D. Both are diprotic acids
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Q18
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C ≡ C–, is present in which of the following orbitals?
- A. sp3
- B. sp2
- C. sp
- D. 2p
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Q19
CHEMISTRY
Unit 3: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
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- A. The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4
- B. The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
- C. The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in NH3
- D. The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90º
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Q20
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
- A. The solution is decolourized
- B. SO2 is reduced
- C. Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
- D. The solution turns blue
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Q21
CHEMISTRY
Unit 4: Chemical Thermodynamics
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is:
- A. ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
- B. ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
- C. ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
- D. ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0
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Q22
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Natural rubber has:
- A. All trans-configuration
- B. Alternate cis- and trans-configuration
- C. Random cis- and trans-configuration
- D. All cis-configuration
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Q23
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?
- A. B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
- B. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
- C. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
- D. Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- (increasing ionic size)
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Q24
CHEMISTRY
Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?
- A. Ozone
- B. MnO2
- C. Aluminium isopropoxide
- D. Acetone
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Q25
CHEMISTRY
Unit 10: p-Block Elements
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is
- A. CaCN
- B. CaCN3
- C. Ca2CN
- D. Ca(CN)2
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Q26
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Fog is a colloidal solution of:
- A. Gas in liquid
- B. Solid in gas
- C. Gas in gas
- D. Liquid in gas
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Q26
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Fog is a colloidal solution of :
- A. Gas in liquid
- B. Solid in gas
- C. Gas in gas
- D. Liquid in gas
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Q27
CHEMISTRY
Unit 9: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Which one of the following orders in correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
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- A. Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
- B. Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
- C. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
- D. I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
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Q28
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?
- A. 1/4
- B. 3/8
- C. 1/2
- D. 1/8
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Q29
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m^–3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol^–1. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^–1)
- A. 352 pm
- B. 527 pm
- C. 264 pm
- D. 154 pm
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Q30
CHEMISTRY
Unit 5: Solutions
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25ºC. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25ºC, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
- A. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
- B. The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene
- C. Not enough information is given to make a prediction
- D. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene
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Q31
CHEMISTRY
Unit 12: Coordination Compounds
Which of the following has longest C – O bond length ? (Free C – O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å)
- A. [Co(CO)4]–
- B. [Fe(CO)4]2–
- C. [Mn(CO)6]+
- D. Ni(CO)4
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Q32
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Among the following the correct order of acidity is :
- A. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
- B. HClO4 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
- C. HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
- D. HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
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Q32
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
Among the following the correct order of acidity is :
- A. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
- B. HClO4 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
- C. HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
- D. HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
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Q33
CHEMISTRY
Unit 15: Hydrocarbons
In the reaction sequence: HC≡CH --(NaNH2/liq. NH3, then CH3CH2Br)--> X --(NaNH2/liq. NH3, then CH3CH2Br)--> Y. X and Y are:
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- A. X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
- B. X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
- C. X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
- D. X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
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Q34
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same KSP values of 6.2 × 10^-13 at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3?
- A. The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
- B. The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water
- C. The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities
- D. The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical
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Q35
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be :
- A. slower
- B. uncharged
- C. doubled
- D. faster
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Q36
CHEMISTRY
Unit 17: Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is :
- A. Ketone
- B. Carboxylic acid
- C. Aromatic acid
- D. Schiff base
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Q37
CHEMISTRY
Unit 7: Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is :
- A. 10^-12 atm
- B. 10^-10 atm
- C. 10^-4 atm
- D. 10^-14 atm
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Q38
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is :
- A. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-dexyribose
- B. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
- C. The sugar component in RNA is 2'-dexyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
- D. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose
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Q39
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar ?
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- A. Lactose
- B. Glucose
- C. Sucrose
- D. Maltose
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Q40
CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Which of the following statement about hydrogen is incorrect?
- A. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
- B. Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution
- C. Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent
- D. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common
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Q41
CHEMISTRY
Unit 6: Equilibrium
Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium: Liquid ⇌ Vapour. Which of the following relations (Clausius-Clapeyron equation) is correct?
- A. d(ln P)/dT = -ΔH_v / RT
- B. d(ln P)/dT = -ΔH_v / RT^2
- C. d(ln P)/dT = ΔH_v / RT^2
- D. d(ln G)/dT = ΔH_v / RT^2
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Q42
CHEMISTRY
Unit 14: Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?
- A. 2,2'-diiodo-6,6'-dibromobiphenyl
- B. 4,4'-diiodobiphenyl
- C. 2,2'-dimethylbiphenyl
- D. 2-iodo-2'-nitrobiphenyl
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Q43
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements is false?
- A. Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
- B. Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of heart
- C. Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants
- D. Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP
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Q44
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
The ionic radii of A+ and B- ions are 0.98 × 10^-10 m and 1.81 × 10^-10 m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is:
- A. 4
- B. 8
- C. 2
- D. 6
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Q45
CHEMISTRY
Unit 8: Chemical Kinetics
The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol l^-1 s^-1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l^-1 s^-1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
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- A. 34.1 s
- B. 44.1 s
- C. 54.1 s
- D. 24.1 s
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Q46
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:
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- A. Phosphodiester bond
- B. Covalent bond
- C. Disulphide bridges
- D. Hydrogen bonds
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Q47
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
The coconut water from tender coconut represents :
- A. Fleshy mesocarp
- B. Free nuclear proembryo
- C. Free nuclear endosperm
- D. Endocarp
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Q48
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?
- A. Circular structure
- B. Transferable
- C. Single-stranded
- D. Independent replication
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Q49
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ?
- A. River dolphin
- B. Blue whale
- C. Sea-horse
- D. Gangetic shark
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Q50
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of
- A. GA3
- B. IAA
- C. Ethylene
- D. ABA
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Q51
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction ?
- A. Alien species invasion
- B. Habitat loss and fragmentation
- C. Co-extinctions
- D. Over-exploitation
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Q52
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ?
- A. Intra uterine devices: Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperm
- B. Hormonal contraceptives: Prevent/retard entry of sperm, prevent ovulation and fertilization
- C. Vasectomy: Prevents spermatogenesis
- D. Barrier methods: Prevent fertilization
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Q53
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type-offspring. This indicates -
- A. Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
- B. The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
- C. Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene
- D. The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
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Q54
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A typical fat molecule is made up of -
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- A. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
- B. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
- C. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
- D. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
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Q55
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I: (a) Dominance, (b) Codominance, (c) Pleiotropy, (d) Polygenic inheritance
Column-II: (i) Many genes govern a single character, (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself, (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully, (iv) A single gene influences many characters
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- A. (1) ii iii iv i
- B. (2) iv i ii iii
- C. (3) iv iii i ii
- D. (4) ii i iv iii
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Q56
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Which of the following statements is not correct?
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- A. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen / nectar robbers.
- B. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil
- C. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species
- D. Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style
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Q57
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
- A. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
- B. Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
- C. Metamerically segmented body
- D. Schizocoelom as body cavity
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Q58
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are -
- A. Chlorophylls
- B. Carotenoids
- C. Anthocyanins
- D. Xanthophylls
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Q59
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would results in -
- A. Polyploidy
- B. Somaclonal variation
- C. Polyteny
- D. Aneuploidy
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Q60
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilization. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
- A. C4
- B. CAM
- C. Nitrogen fixer
- D. C3
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Q61
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
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- A. Graft rejection
- B. Auto-immune disease
- C. Active immunity
- D. Allergic response
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Q62
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of
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- A. Two photosystems operating simultaneously
- B. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
- C. Oxidative phosphorylation
- D. Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
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Q63
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Select the correct statement
- A. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
- B. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
- C. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
- D. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
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Q64
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
- A. Disappearance of nucleolus
- B. Chromosome movement
- C. Synapsis
- D. Spindle fibres
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Q65
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is -
- A. More than that in the carotid
- B. More than that in the pulmonary vein
- C. Less than that in the venae cavae
- D. Same as that in the aorta
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Q66
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of the birds?
- A. Wing of a Moth
- B. Hind limb of Rabbit
- C. Flippers of Whale
- D. Dorsal fin of a Shark
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Q67
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Seed formation without fertilization in following plants involves the process of
- A. Budding
- B. Somatic hybridization
- C. Apomixis
- D. Sporulation
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Q68
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking
- A. Asthma
- B. Respiratory acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Emphysema
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Q69
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Spindle fibres attach on to
- A. Kinetochore of the chromosomes
- B. Centromere of the chromosomes
- C. Kinetosome of the chromosomes
- D. Telomere of the chromosomes
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Q70
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
- A. It is used for prenatal sex determination
- B. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
- C. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
- D. It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant
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Q70
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
- A. It is used for prenatal sex determination
- B. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
- C. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
- D. It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant
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Q71
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as
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- A. Phyllodes
- B. Phylloclades
- C. Scales
- D. Cladodes
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Q72
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in
- A. Lumen of thylakoids
- B. Inter membrane space
- C. Antennae complex
- D. Stroma
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Q73
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
- A. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
- B. The names are written in Latin and are italicised
- C. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
- D. Biological names can be written in any language
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Q74
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:
- A. Leptotene
- B. Zygotene
- C. Diplotene
- D. Pachytene
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Q75
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain -
- A. Harvested antibodies
- B. Gamma globulin
- C. Attenuated pathogens
- D. Activated pathogens
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Q76
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
- A. Thiobacillus ferroxidans
- B. Bacillus subtilis
- C. Pseudomonas putida
- D. Thermus aquaticus
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Q77
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?
- A. X-linked recessive gene disorder
- B. Chromosomal disorder
- C. Dominant gene disorder
- D. Recessive gene disorder
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Q78
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called -
- A. Pappus
- B. Vexillum
- C. Corona
- D. Carina
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Q79
BIOLOGY
Unit 8: Biology and Human Welfare
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
- A. Leaf
- B. Stem
- C. Root
- D. Flower
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Q79
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
- A. Leaf
- B. Stem
- C. Root
- D. Flower
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Q80
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
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- A. They are smaller than viruses
- B. They cause infections
- C. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
- D. They lack a protein coat
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Q81
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
- A. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
- B. Mutations inactivate the cell control
- C. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
- D. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
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Q81
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
- A. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
- B. Mutations inactivate the cell control
- C. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
- D. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
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Q82
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its locations?
- A. Areolar tissue - Tendons
- B. Transitional epithelium - Tip of nose
- C. Cuboidal epithelium - Lining of stomach
- D. Smooth muscle - Wall of intestine
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Q83
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
- A. Insulin - Glucagon
- B. Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
- C. Relaxin - Inhibin
- D. Parathormone - Calcitonin
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Q84
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called -
- A. Subsidiary cells
- B. Bulliform cells
- C. Lenticels
- D. Complementary cells
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Q85
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if -
- A. The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
- B. The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix
- C. The sperm are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
- D. The sperm are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
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Q86
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
- A. UGA
- B. UAA
- C. UAG
- D. AUG
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Q87
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in -
- A. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms
- B. An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients
- C. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen
- D. Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom
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Q88
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life - (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
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- A. (b) is correct but (a) is false
- B. Both (a) and (b) are correct
- C. Both (a) and (b) are false
- D. (a) is correct but (b) is false
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Q89
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called -
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- A. Contour farming
- B. Strip farming
- C. Shifting agriculture
- D. Ley farming
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Q90
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:
- A. Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
- B. No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources
- C. Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition
- D. More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition
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Q91
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
- A. Viviparous - Mammalia
- B. Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw - Chordata
- C. 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle - Reptilia
- D. Cartilaginous endoskeleton - Chondrichthyes
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Q92
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Change in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
- A. estrogen and inhibin
- B. progesterone only
- C. progesterone and inhibin
- D. estrogen and progesterone
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Q93
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Microtubules are the constituents of:
- A. Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
- B. Centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
- C. Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
- D. Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
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Q94
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Mitochondria and chloroplast are:
(a) semi-autonomous organelles
(b) formed by division of pre existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery
Which one of the following options is correct?
- A. (b) is true but (a) is false
- B. (a) is true but (b) is false
- C. Both (a) and (b) are false
- D. Both (a) and (b) are correct
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Q95
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
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- A. Opsin and Retinal
- B. Opsin and Retinol
- C. Transducin and Retinene
- D. Guanosine and Retinol
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Q96
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:
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- A. Protista
- B. Fungi
- C. Animalia
- D. Monera
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Q97
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals include the:
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- A. Thermoacidophiles
- B. Methanogens
- C. Eubacteria
- D. Halophiles
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Q98
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin' -
- A. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
- B. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH
- C. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH
- D. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin
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Q99
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because -
- A. Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate
- B. Small animals have a lower O2 requirement
- C. The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals
- D. It is easier to carry a small body weight
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Q100
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of -
- A. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
- B. 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf
- C. 3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall
- D. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
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Q101
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers -
- A. Ozone
- B. Ammonia
- C. Methane
- D. Nitrous oxide
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Q102
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ?
- A. Least genetic diversity
- B. Absence of weeds
- C. Ecological succession
- D. Absence of soil organisms
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Q103
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of -
- A. Solanaceae
- B. Fabaceae
- C. Poaceae
- D. Liliaceae
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Q105
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Reduction in pH of blood will-
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- A. reduce the blood supply to the brain
- B. decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
- C. release bicarbonate ions by the liver
- D. reduce the rate of heart beat
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Q106
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as -
- A. Fatigue
- B. Tetanus
- C. Tonus
- D. Spasm
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Q107
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
- A. Golden algae are also called desmids
- B. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
- C. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
- D. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
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Q108
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
- A. Protease
- B. DNase I
- C. RNase I
- D. Hind II
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Q109
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
- A. Liverworts
- B. Mosses
- C. Green algae
- D. Lichens
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Q110
BIOLOGY
Unit 4: Plant Physiology
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements.
- A. Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different.
- B. The above processes happen only during night time.
- C. One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.
- D. Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.
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Q111
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
- A. Coleorhiza
- B. Coleoptile
- C. Scutellum
- D. Plumule
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Q112
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
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- A. Ileocaecal valve
- B. Pyloric sphincter
- C. Sphincter of Oddi
- D. Semilunar valve
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Q113
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
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- A. Parietal cells
- B. Peptic cells
- C. Acidic cells
- D. Gastrin secreting cells
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Q114
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
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- A. Dorsal Aorta
- B. Hepatic Vein
- C. Hepatic Portal Vein
- D. Renal Vein
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Q115
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
The term ecosystem was coined by:
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- A. A.G. Tansley
- B. E. Haeckel
- C. E. Warming
- D. E.P. Odum
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Q116
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
- A. galactose
- B. lactose
- C. lactose and galactose
- D. glucose
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Q117
BIOLOGY
Unit 9: Biotechnology and Its Applications
Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Microbe | Product | Application
(1) Monascus purpureus | Statins | Lowering of blood cholesterol
(2) Streptococcus | Streptokinase | Removal of clot from blood vessel
(3) Clostridium butylicum | Lipase | Removal of oil stains
(4) Trichoderma polysporum | Cyclosporin A | Immunosuppressive drug
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
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Q118
BIOLOGY
Unit 10: Ecology and Environment
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) :
- A. When N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
- B. When N/K equals zero.
- C. When death rate is greater than birth rate.
- D. When N/K is exactly one.
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Q120
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires :
- A. Insects
- B. Birds
- C. Water
- D. Wind
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Q121
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Which of the following is not a stem modification?
- A. Thorns of citrus
- B. Tendrils of cucumber
- C. Flattened structures of Opuntia
- D. Pitcher of Nepenthes
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Q122
BIOLOGY
Unit 3: Cell Structure and Function
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
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- A. Chloroplasts
- B. Lysosomes
- C. Nuclei
- D. Mitochondria
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Q123
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Analogous structures are a result of :
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- A. Convergent evolution
- B. Shared ancestry
- C. Stabilizing selection
- D. Divergent evolution
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Q124
CHEMISTRY
Unit 19: Biomolecules
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
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- A. Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
- B. Uracil is a pyrimidine.
- C. Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
- D. Sucrose is a disaccharide.
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Q125
BIOLOGY
Unit 2: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the :
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- A. Connective
- B. Placenta
- C. Thalamus or petal
- D. Anther
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Q126
BIOLOGY
Unit 7: Genetics and Evolution
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
- A. Zinc finger analysis
- B. Restriction enzymes
- C. DNA – DNA hybridization
- D. Polymerase chain reaction
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Q127
BIOLOGY
Unit 1: Diversity in Living World
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
- A. Breathing using lungs
- B. Viviparity
- C. Warm blooded nature
- D. Ossified endoskeleton
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Q128
BIOLOGY
Unit 6: Reproduction
Select the incorrect statement :
- A. LH triggers ovulation in ovary.
- B. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.
- C. LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.
- D. FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.
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Q129
BIOLOGY
Unit 5: Human Physiology
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of :
- A. Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
- B. Estrogen and Progesterone
- C. Cortisol and Cortisone
- D. Melatonin and Serotonin
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Q136
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is :
- A. 20 %
- B. 75 %
- C. 80 %
- D. 0 %
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Q138
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is :
- A. 5 : 4
- B. 3 : 4
- C. 3 : 2
- D. 5 : 1
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Q139
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is :
- A. 5 λ
- B. 2.5 λ
- C. 3 λ
- D. 4 λ
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Q140
PHYSICS
Unit 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to :
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- A. {2 + (n + 1) p} ρ
- B. {2 + (n – 1) p} ρ
- C. {1 + (n – 1) p} ρ
- D. {1 + (n + 1) p} ρ
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Q141
PHYSICS
Unit 15: Electromagnetic Waves
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
- A. A stationary charge
- B. A chargeless particle
- C. An accelerating charges
- D. A charge moving at constant velocity
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Q142
PHYSICS
Unit 12: Current Electricity
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt², where a and b are positive constants, The total heat produced in R is:
- A. a³/b³R
- B. a³/b²R
- C. a³/bR
- D. a³R/6b
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Q143
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are – 5.4 × 10⁷ J kg⁻² and 6.0 ms⁻² respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km:
- A. 1600 km
- B. 1400 km
- C. 2000 km
- D. 2600 km
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Q144
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l1 and l2 respectively. If (l2 – l1) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
- A. l1²α1 = l2²α2
- B. l1α1² = l2α2²
- C. l1α1 = l2α2
- D. l1²α2 = l2²α1
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Q145
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10 d?
- A. I0/4
- B. 3I0/4
- C. I0/2
- D. I0
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Q146
CHEMISTRY
Unit 2: Atomic Structure
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10^7 m^-1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
- A. 0.5 × 10^7 m^-1
- B. 0.25 × 10^7 m^-1
- C. 2.5 × 10^7 m^-1
- D. 0.025 × 10^4 m^-1
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Q146
PHYSICS
Unit 18: Atoms and Nuclei
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10⁷ m⁻¹, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
- A. 0.5 × 10⁷ m⁻¹
- B. 0.25 × 10⁷ m⁻¹
- C. 2.5 × 10⁷ m⁻¹
- D. 0.025 × 10⁴ m⁻¹
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Q147
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
- A. 1 : 2√2
- B. 1 : 4
- C. 1 : 2
- D. 1 : √2
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Q148
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10^-3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:
- A. 3 H
- B. 2 H
- C. 1 H
- D. 4 H
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Q149
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μs. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
- A. sqrt(gR * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
- B. sqrt(R/g * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
- C. sqrt(R/g * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ)^2)
- D. sqrt(gR^2 * (μs + tan θ) / (1 - μs tan θ))
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Q150
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:
- A. paramagnetic material only
- B. ferromagnetic material only
- C. paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
- D. diamagnetic material only
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Q151
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15ms^-1. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is: (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms^-1)
- A. 800 Hz
- B. 838 Hz
- C. 885 Hz
- D. 765 Hz
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Q152
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F = (3t^2 i_hat + 2t j_hat)N. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
- A. (2t^2 + 4t^4)W
- B. (2t^3 + 3t^4)W
- C. (2t^3 + 3t^5)W
- D. (2t^2 + 3t^3)W
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Q152
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F = (t^2 i^ + 3t j^) N, where i^ and j^ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
- A. (2t^2 + 4t^4)W
- B. (2t^3 + 3t^4)W
- C. (2t^3 + 3t^5)W
- D. (2t^2 + 3t^3)W
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Q153
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
- A. 13 MR^2/32
- B. 11 MR^2/32
- C. 9 MR^2/32
- D. 15 MR^2/32
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Q154
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle 30º when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of :
- A. sin^-1(2/3)
- B. sin^-1(1/2)
- C. sin^-1(3/4)
- D. sin^-1(1/4)
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Q155
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A square loop ABCD carrying a current i is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be:
- A. (mu_0 * i * I) / (2 * pi)
- B. (2 * mu_0 * i * I * L) / (3 * pi)
- C. (mu_0 * i * I * L) / (2 * pi)
- D. (2 * mu_0 * i * I) / (3 * pi)
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Q156
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 × 10^6 nmK. Which of the following is correct?
- A. U3 = 0
- B. U1 > U2
- C. U2 > U1
- D. U1 = 0
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Q157
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. 100 cm
- B. 150 cm
- C. 200 cm
- D. 66.7 cm
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Q158
PHYSICS
Unit 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s velocity of 200 ms^-1 at 27ºC and 1.0 × 10^5 Nm^-2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127ºC and 0.05 × 10^5 Nm^-2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms^-1 is:
↻ Repeated question — also appeared in
2026 (1 set)
- A. 400/sqrt(3)
- B. 2100/sqrt(3)
- C. 100/sqrt(3)
- D. 2100
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Q159
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
- A. 10⁻² A
- B. 10⁻¹ A
- C. 10⁻³ A
- D. 0 A
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Q160
PHYSICS
Unit 1: Physics and Measurement
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
- A. 90º
- B. 45º
- C. 180º
- D. 0º
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Q161
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
An astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance:
- A. 46.0 cm
- B. 50.0 cm
- C. 54.0 cm
- D. 37.3 cm
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Q162
PHYSICS
Unit 19: Electronic Devices
A npn transistor is connected to common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be:
- A. 3.69, 3.84
- B. 4, 4
- C. 4, 3.69
- D. 4, 3.84
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Q163
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
- A. Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
- B. Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
- C. Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
- D. Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
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Q164
PHYSICS
Unit 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B' at radial distance a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:
- A. 1/2
- B. 1
- C. 4
- D. 1/4
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Q165
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]:
Column 1: (A) m = -2, (B) m = -1/2, (C) m = +2, (D) m = +1/2
Column 2: (a) Convex mirror, (b) Concave mirror, (c) Real image, (d) Virtual image
- A. (1) A -> a and c; B -> a and d; C -> a and b; D -> c and d
- B. (2) A -> a and d; B -> b and c; C -> b and d; D -> b and c
- C. (3) A -> c and d; B -> b and d; C -> b and c; D -> a and d
- D. (4) A -> b and c; B -> b and c; C -> b and d; D -> a and d
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Q166
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt^2, where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is:
- A. 3A + 7B
- B. 3/2A + 7/3B
- C. A/2 + B/3
- D. 3/2A + 4B
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Q167
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
- A. Sphere
- B. Both reach at the same time
- C. Depends on their masses
- D. Disk
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Q168
PHYSICS
Unit 11: Electrostatics
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of length l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as:
- A. v ∝ x
- B. v ∝ x^-1/2
- C. v ∝ x^-1
- D. v ∝ x^1/2
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Q169
PHYSICS
Unit 2: Kinematics
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r = (cos ωt)i + (sin ωt)j. Where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?
- A. Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r
- B. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
- C. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
- D. Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r
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Q170
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is : [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10^5 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]
- A. 544 km
- B. 136 km
- C. 68 km
- D. 34 km
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Q171
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s^-2. Its net acceleration in ms^-2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately :
- A. 7.0
- B. 6.0
- C. 3.0
- D. 8.0
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Q172
PHYSICS
Unit 4: Work Energy and Power
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
- A. sqrt(2gR)
- B. sqrt(3gR)
- C. sqrt(5gR)
- D. sqrt(gR)
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Q173
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C :
- A. Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source
- B. Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
- C. Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180º
- D. Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90º
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Q174
PHYSICS
Unit 10: Oscillations and Waves
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is :
- A. (m1+m2)/m2
- B. m2/m1
- C. (m1+m2)/m1
- D. m1/m2
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Q174
PHYSICS
Unit 3: Laws of Motion
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is:
- A. (m1+m2)/m2
- B. m2/m1
- C. m1/(m1+m2)
- D. m1/m2
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Q175
PHYSICS
Unit 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 µF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is:
- A. 0.67 W
- B. 0.76 W
- C. 0.89 W
- D. 0.51 W
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Q176
PHYSICS
Unit 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is:
- A. (1/c) * sqrt(E/2m)
- B. sqrt(2mEc)
- C. (1/c) * sqrt(2m/E)
- D. (1/c) * sqrt(2mE)
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Q177
PHYSICS
Unit 6: Gravitation
When an α-particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze', its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as:
- A. 1/m
- B. 1/m^2
- C. m
- D. 1/m
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Q178
PHYSICS
Unit 8: Thermodynamics
A refrigerator works between 4ºC and 30ºC. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is : (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
- A. 23.65 W
- B. 236.5 W
- C. 2365 W
- D. 2.365 W
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Q179
PHYSICS
Unit 5: Rotational Motion
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10^-4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?
- A. 0.15 m/s^2
- B. 0.18 m/s^2
- C. 0.2 m/s^2
- D. 0.1 m/s^2
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Q180
PHYSICS
Unit 16: Optics
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45º. The angle of prism is 60º. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:
- A. 30º ; √2
- B. 45º ; √2
- C. 30º ; 1/√2
- D. 45º ; 1/√2
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